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KJVO Lies

Craigbythesea

Well-Known Member
Lacy Evans asked,

If God has preserved (pickled) His Word for us in missing Greek autographs, wouldn't that by default make Him to be a respecter of persons?
God’s timing is always perfect. Jesus came into this world to die for our sins at the very time when Greek had become the trade language of the known world. Even the Jews could read and write Greek. Although Greek was a third language for most of the New Testament writers, they penned their individual contributions to the New Testament in Greek. Although the original autographs are missing, we have thousands of hand-written copies of them that have been preserved. The King James translation of the New Testament was made from some of these preserved copies.

And unlike most languages, Greek has been preserved as both a written and spoken language for thousands of years. Indeed, Greek has been preserved very much better than any other language (other than Hebrew) that is more than 3,500 years old. The English language is a poorly preserved language, and has changed more in 500 years than Greek has changed in 3,500 years.

The Hebrew language is unique. History tells us that when a culture is displaced, the language is 95% lost by the third generation. The Hebrew people, however, preserved their language not just for three generations, but for nearly 3,000 years.

If Psalm 12 includes a promise by God to preserve his word, there is no doubt at all that it has been preserved in Greek and Hebrew from the day it was first given to us. The King James Bible has been translated into just a few languages; the Gospel of John has been translated from the Greek to hundreds of different languages.

God did not wait until 1611 or 1769 or any other date to preserve his Word, it has been preserved ever since it was originally written in Greek and Hebrew. Why did God allow the original autographs to be lost? Perhaps for the same reason that he allowed the original autographs of the King James translation of the Bible to be lost. And perhaps that reason was to discourage fools from worshiping the book rather than the Author.
 

Craigbythesea

Well-Known Member
Michele wrote,

So are you saying that it is much better for a native English speaking translator, who only learns Greek and Hebrew impersonally as well as the prospective language to then give an accurate translation through all those different langauge qualifications, is better and more accurate than translationing from the scriptures of their native tongue, to those in another language?
Obviously you know nothing at all about Bible translators. Competent Bible translators, of whom there are many, know both Greek and Hebrew infinitely better than you know English, and they know the receptor language very much better than you know English.

Indeed, many universities in the United States today offer no classes at all in English grammar—they assume that you learned it well enough in High School since you qualified for admission in their university. However, those who spend many years in a university studying Biblical languages find themselves studying more English grammar than they ever even imagined existed. I didn’t learn the significance of a perfect passive participle in the subjunctive mood while I was in high school, and I seriously doubt that you did either. :D
 

DHK

<b>Moderator</b>
Originally posted by michelle:
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Lacy do you agree with this statement: that the King James test is the last and final statement that God has given to the world, and He has given it in the English language, the universal language of the 20th century and that God slammed the door of revelation shut in 389BC and slammed it shut again in 1611?

HankD
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God has made EVIDENT what he has done. I cannot speak for other languages, I can only see the EVIDENCE in my own native language of what He has done, and throughout the history of the churches prior to this in respect to English. I will leave you with this:

Romans 11

33. O the depth of the riches both of the wisdom and knowledge of God! how unsearchable are his judgments, and his ways past finding out!
34. For who hath known the mind of the Lord? or who hath been his counseller?
35. Or who hath first given to him, and it shall be recompensed unto him again?
36. For of him, and through him, and to him, are all things: to whom be glory for ever. Amen.


Love in Jesus Christ our Lord and Saviour,
michelle
This KJVO position is untenable and illogical. If God were to preserve any translation of any Bible it would not be in the English language. For you to believe that, you believe it out of your emotion, sentimentality and deep attachment to a book that you love. But it isn't a logical conclusion as you say it is.

In the world today there are 1,075,000,000 Chinese people that speak Mandarin.
There are only 514,000,000 out of six billion world population that speak English. Twice as many people in this world speak Mandarin than English. If God were righteous and just He would have preserved His infallible Word (if it is preserved in a translation) in Mandarin, not in English. He would require all English speaking people to learn Mandarin in order to have the true inspired Word of God, not English.
Why are you KJVO people so ethnocentric, and just plain arrogant? Is it just because you live in America and use the KJV, then that is what God must have blessed? Isn't that like saying: "I was blessed by watching "Little House on the Prairie," therefore it must be an instrument used of God to bless others. Lets translate it into every language in the world that all others might be blessed likewise. Watchout, your ethnocentrism is showing.
 

HankD

Well-Known Member
Site Supporter
Why are you KJVO people so ethnocentric, and just plain arrogant?
Because KJVOism traced back to the it's father is a form of Anglo-Israeli-ism.
The King James test is the last and final statement that God has given to the world, and He has given it in the universal language of the 20th century ... The truth is that God slammed the door of revelation shut in 389BC and slammed it shut again in 1611
Peter Ruckman, The Monarch of Books, Pensacola, 1973, p. 9.

Notice that the 1st time the "door of revelation" was shut was in 389BC at the end of the Old testament canon. But the end of the New testamant canon (or when God shut the "door of revelation" again) according to Dr Ruckman was in 1611 not 90AD when it actually happened. That would call for a Greek NT not an English NT as in 1611.

HankD
 

DHK

<b>Moderator</b>
Originally posted by HankD:
Notice that the 1st time the "door of revelation" was shut was in 389BC at the end of the Old testament canon. But the end of the New testamant canon (or when God shut the "door of revelation" again) according to Dr Ruckman was in 1611 not 90AD when it actually happened. That would call for a Greek NT not an English NT as in 1611.

HankD
That is why I believe that no translation of the Bible can be inspired--only the original autographs, which "holy men of God spake as they were moved by the Holy Ghost." And I believe that those holy men of God were the Old Testament prophets, and by extension the New Testament Apostles or authors of the New Testament canon.
DHK
 

Dr. Bob

Administrator
Administrator
"The truth is that God slammed the door of revelation shut in 389BC and slammed it shut again in 1611." Peter Ruckman, The Monarch of Books, Pensacola, 1973, p. 9.
That's the problem with the KJVonly sect. 98% of them give the other 2% a bad name. :rolleyes:
 
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