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KJVO

Discussion in 'Bible Versions & Translations' started by Jordan Kurecki, Oct 13, 2018.

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  1. Yeshua1

    Yeshua1 Well-Known Member
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    Martin is asking if the KJVO here hold that the Kjv itself was perfect, without any mistakes in the translation?
     
    #141 Yeshua1, Nov 2, 2018
  2. 37818

    37818 Well-Known Member

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    The KJV reads, ". . . Son . . ." And the NASB reads, ". . . God . . . ." John 1:18.
     
    #142 37818, Nov 2, 2018
  3. Yeshua1

    Yeshua1 Well-Known Member
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    Jesus is Son and God!
     
    #143 Yeshua1, Nov 2, 2018
  4. Wesley Briggman

    Wesley Briggman Well-Known Member
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    Perfect compared to what? Provide a source document for comparison. Thereupon, a comparison can be made. However, how can the document provided for comparison be proven to be perfect?

    Round n' Round we go!!
     
    #144 Wesley Briggman, Nov 2, 2018
  5. 37818

    37818 Well-Known Member

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    He was with God (John 1:2). John 1:18 either says "Son" or "God."
     
    #145 37818, Nov 2, 2018
  6. Martin Marprelate

    Martin Marprelate Well-Known Member
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    Eight Greek manuscripts (according to my UBS 1993 Greek NT) have 'God' whilst over 900 have 'Son' as do a host of Church fathers. Also, almost everywhere else that monogenes ('only begotten') appears in John, it is followed by huios ('Son'), never by theos ('God'). John 1:14; 3:16, 18; 1 John 4:9. The NKJV also has 'Son.'
     
    #146 Martin Marprelate, Nov 2, 2018
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  7. Martin Marprelate

    Martin Marprelate Well-Known Member
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    Well, is the KJV translation of Titus 2:13 correct and that of all other versions (except the J.W. New World translation) incorrect?
    Titus 2:13, KJV. '......the glorious appearing of the great God and our Saviour Jesus Christ.'
    Titus 2:13, NKJV and others. '......the glorious appearing of our great God and Saviour Jesus Christ.'
     
    #147 Martin Marprelate, Nov 2, 2018
  8. JonC

    JonC Moderator
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    Yes. Begotten Son or begotten God (depending on the manuscript you prefer to use)...with the exact same meaning. God's Word is not a superficial thing. We have to realize these are translations and look at not only the different word choices, the manuscripts, but also the context.

    God's Word was not corrupted when the KJV translators unfortunately chose to use the Latin "Lucifer" in translating, and neither was it corrupted when the NASB chose to keep the archaic "so" for "thusly" in John 3:16. One must study.
     
    #148 JonC, Nov 2, 2018
  9. Wesley Briggman

    Wesley Briggman Well-Known Member
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    I am not familiar with all other translations, therefore have no basis on which to answer your question.
    Which translation do you consider correct?
     
    #149 Wesley Briggman, Nov 2, 2018
  10. Squire Robertsson

    Squire Robertsson Administrator
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    Six Hour Warning
    This thread will be closed sometime after 9:30 PM Pacific.
     
    #150 Squire Robertsson, Nov 2, 2018
  11. Martin Marprelate

    Martin Marprelate Well-Known Member
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    There is a general rule, unknown to the KJV translators, which states that when two nouns are placed together with a single article, they refer to the same person: literally 'the God and Saviour of us.' Therefore the KJV is wrong in this case and also in 2 Peter 1:1 which is similar.

    I am not saying that the KJV is not a good translation; I am saying that it is not flawless. Inerrancy is not to be found in a translation. If it is to be found, it will be in the Hebrew and Greek manuscripts.
     
    #151 Martin Marprelate, Nov 2, 2018
  12. Jerome

    Jerome Well-Known Member
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    In another thread, 'Logos1560' made much of the 1611 KJB putting a comma after God:
    Coverdale 1535 Bible, there's a comma (absent in the above representation/list!):

    coverdale1535.jpg

    1535 Coverdale Bible
     
    #152 Jerome, Nov 2, 2018
  13. Squire Robertsson

    Squire Robertsson Administrator
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    This thread is closed.
     
    #153 Squire Robertsson, Nov 2, 2018
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