Originally posted by av1611jim:
I really don't care what it was in 1605, 1606, 1607...etc.Get it?
Hide, dodge, defer, and obfuscate.
It was finished in 1611.....My Bible is perfect. It has a perfect author.
Did God write the 1611 KJV? Double inspiration? Sounds like apostacy/heresy to me.....

Again, faith in a
Bible version isn't faith in anything at all. Once you pin down and corner a KJV-onlyist, he will.....
hide, dodge, defer, and obfuscate ..... ahem...
Don't you mean EDITION? The 1611 is a VERSION the 1769 is an EDITION of that VERSION.
I just
knew that's what you meant, huh?
Well, if the KJV in 1611 was good enough for Paul.....
Again, this lesson in obfuscation is apparent. If the KJV of 1611 was 'perfect', then why an edition in later years? Contradiction, Methinks.... more like typical KJV-only 'logic'. Besides, the KJV itself was an edition of the English Bible started by Wycliffe's
first-ever translation of the Bible from Hebrew & Greek to the vernacular English of the late middle ages. The RV1881 was an edition, as well as the ASV1901, and onto the NKJV, NIV, NASB, and the ESV.
Your question is a non-issue with me and is designed to stir up strife, disputes, and useless questions. It does not serve to edification. Got the picture?
No, we don't paint pictures here. Your answers are the problem of the matter, as they have stirred up error, controversy, strife, and dispute. KJV-onlyism, as even you have defined it for yourself, is paradoxically inferior, full of error, and heterodox in theology. It is heresy!
Now, my question for you. Do you have a perfect Bible? If you have more than one version that you claim is equally authoritative then in effect you are saying that all your versions put together are nothing more than what could be found in a good tract, but you don't really have a Bible.
Likewise, I am sorry to be offensive, but the KJV has errors, both textually and in its translation from the original languages, both grammatically and lexically. All translations are not 'perfect', nor could you derive perfection into the KJV. God did not preserve the text of the NT, nor did he 'preserve' the KJV. The KJV is
infallible since it faithfully reflects the Word of God in its translation from the original languages. Only the original manuscripts-- of which there are none surviving-- can boast being both inspired and inerrant. Therefore, since we have copies of manuscripts with
errors in them, we do not have a Bible today that is 'perfect'.
I am sorry if that is offensive. I really am.
No, you aren't!
I know we cannot agree here. So what's your point? Should we not rather be MUCH MORE concerned with A LOST AND DYING WORLD, than petty disagreements about this?
The problem is that, with your contentious, heterodox, and error-prone views of inspiration, inerrancy, and infallibility, we must contend for the historic Christian faith. Error and heresy must be refuted. This is not a 'petty disagreement' as you would suggest; if it were so petty and inconsequential, then why aren't you out 'saving a dying world'?? It is our contention that you cannot faithfully represent your views honestly. Your views about what constitutes 'errors' in the transmission of the text of the Bible has been completely misconstrued. You demand perfection in the KJV, but when confronted by the 'errors' in the translation, whether contextual, grammatical, textual, or otherwise, the standard you profess that the KJV adheres to is then found to be full of holes. Not one of us who hold to the orthodox, historical Christian doctrines of inspiration, inerrancy, and infallibility have said that the KJV is a 'malicious corrupter of God's Word', nor do we intend on doing so. The errors in the KJV are not the kind of errors that detract from the Word of God; it is a faithful translation that is infallible.
Oh, and just in case you missed it. I don't care what the perfect Bible was before 1605. I know your ploy. If I say the Geneva, you will be oh so quick to point to differences and then say NOW which is right. Or if I say the Bishop's, or the Tyndale's, or the Coverdale's and so on ad infinitum. I really do not care! That generation is long dead. It was their problem, not mine. OK?
Again, hide, defer, detract, obfuscate, and dodge.....
Can't you see your inconsistency-- and dishonesty-- in your answer?
You got it right! If 'that generation is long dead', then it is also true of the generation that produced the KJV (and, to an extent, even the NIV of 1977!).