Lamentations 3:37-38 and God's sovereignty

[Isaiah40:28]

37 Who can speak and have it happen
if the Lord has not decreed it?
38 Is it not from the mouth of the Most High
that both calamities and good things come?

Diving right in as a newcomer and I was wondering if this passage in Lamentations had seen some discussion on here?
If so, maybe someone could provide the link.
If not, then perhaps we could talk about it.

I have found very little commentary in my internet searches that provides a non-Calvinistic understanding to this passage.
I too understand this passage as proclaiming God's sovereignty over all things, including man's choices.
How do you understand it? Or what commentaries have you read that offer other interpretations?

 

[johnp.]

Welcome Isaiah, nice to meet you.

37 Who can speak and have it happen
if the Lord has not decreed it?
38 Is it not from the mouth of the Most High
that both calamities and good things come?

I have found very little commentary in my internet searches that provides a non-Calvinistic understanding to this passage.

That's easy man. It's two questions. The answer to the first 37 Who can speak and have it happen if the Lord has not decreed it? Man can. haha!
The answer to the second 38 Is it not from the mouth of the Most High that both calamities and good things come? "No, of course not."

I too understand this passage as proclaiming God's sovereignty over all things, including man's choices.
How do you understand it?

That God is the Author of sin, how do you read it?

john.

 

[Isaiah40:28]

Welcome Isaiah, nice to meet you.

37 Who can speak and have it happen
if the Lord has not decreed it?
38 Is it not from the mouth of the Most High
that both calamities and good things come?



That's easy man. It's two questions. The answer to the first 37 Who can speak and have it happen if the Lord has not decreed it? Man can. haha!
The answer to the second 38 Is it not from the mouth of the Most High that both calamities and good things come? "No, of course not."



That God is the Author of sin, how do you read it?

john.

Sorry, I was under the impression that people on here actually put time and thought into their posts.
Apparantly some, not so much.

 

[johnp.]

Sorry, I was under the impression that people on here actually put time and thought into their posts.
Apparantly some, not so much.

Don't be sorry just answer my question Isaiah. A lot of thought goes into my replies, maybe you need to get up to speed.

37 Who can speak and have it happen
if the Lord has not decreed it?
38 Is it not from the mouth of the Most High
that both calamities and good things come?

How do you read it?

john.

 

[reformedbeliever]

Sorry, I was under the impression that people on here actually put time and thought into their posts.
Apparantly some, not so much.

Hello Isaiah. John is serious I think, when he says God is the author of sin. He is one of the rare calvinists who believe that. I personally believe that God uses sin for His purposes, but He does it in a way that He is not the author of sin. Welcome to the bb.

 

[johnp.]

Hello Isaiah. John is serious I think, when he says God is the author of sin.

I am, thanks reformed.

He is one of the rare calvinists who believe that.

Only cause they shot the others.

I personally believe that God uses sin for His purposes, but He does it in a way that He is not the author of sin.

Keeping His Hands clean? Cool. For God has bound all men over to disobedience... Rom 11:32.

Welcome to the bb.

Again, welcome Isaiah.

john.

 

[ituttut]

Still there Isaiah? Hop on board and stay awhile.

Lamitations 3:37 Who can speak and have it happen
if the Lord has not decreed it?
38 Is it not from the mouth of the Most High
that both calamities and good things come?

Diving right in as a newcomer and I was wondering if this passage in Lamentations had seen some discussion on here?
If so, maybe someone could provide the link.
If not, then perhaps we could talk about it.

I have found very little commentary in my internet searches that provides a non-Calvinistic understanding to this passage.
I too understand this passage as proclaiming God's sovereignty over all things, including man's choices.
How do you understand it? Or what commentaries have you read that offer other interpretations?

He is with us always. Will He forsake us? He is there with us in the bad times, and the good times. We suffer for the cause of Christ, and in Him is the "good news" we in the "Body of Christ. The lost "suffer" by themselves, and are happy in rebellion in Satan, who is for self only.

Can we speak if God did not "decree it"? He decrees today we preach the Cross, of believe on the Lord Jesus Christ for our salvation. Do we believe this? Yes we in Christ do? ……..Do the lost believe in Jesus Christ for their salvation?………From His mouth to us will come "thou good and faithful servant". From His mouth to all others I'm not allowed to say, as I don't know. All the worldly lovey dovey overly affectionate crowd, will find our God is a God of Justice, the words will be damning given in pure righteous justice, and know it "ain't" going to be pretty.

Goodies are waiting for us, but great loss and misfortune for them. He speaks and it happens.

 

[Isaiah40:28]

That's easy man. It's two questions. The answer to the first 37 Who can speak and have it happen if the Lord has not decreed it? Man can. haha!
The answer to the second 38 Is it not from the mouth of the Most High that both calamities and good things come? "No, of course not."

IMO, this is the part that lacks serious thought.

As far as God being the author of sin, Vincent Cheung advocates that idea and seems to fit into the Reformed community with little trouble.
I personally don't subscribe to that view and am more interested in how non-Calvinists exegete this passage.

 

[Isaiah40:28]

Can we speak if God did not "decree it"?

So, what exactly was your answer to that question?

 

[Isaiah40:28]

Diving right in as a newcomer and I was wondering if this passage in Lamentations had seen some discussion on here?
If so, maybe someone could provide the link.
If not, then perhaps we could talk about it.

I have found very little commentary in my internet searches that provides a non-Calvinistic understanding to this passage.
I too understand this passage as proclaiming God's sovereignty over all things, including man's choices.
How do you understand it? Or what commentaries have you read that offer other interpretations?

So is this passage too damaging for the non-Calvinists to interact with? :smilewinkgrin: