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Let’s review some basic Christian understanding

evangelist-7

New Member
Well, I think you have to say He was both Son AND Word for all eternity.

And if all the rest of this doesn't blow your mind, the "Son" who is refered to in Isaiah 7 is called the "Everlasting Father"!

So the Son, Word, Messiah, is also the Everlasting Father....:laugh:
Jesus also was the Son of Man, who came down from Heaven (John 3:13).

The Word/Logos, the Son of God, the Son of Man ... this One came down from Heaven.
Jesus is the Father (Isaiah 9:6).
Jesus said He is the Spirit (???????).
If you have One, you have all Three (John 14:16-26).

.
 
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OldRegular

Well-Known Member
It makes less sense to say that the divine became human. Jesus Christ [one person] was fully God [one nature] and fully human [second nature].
So you're saying Jesus Christ "was...fully human." but you deny that he "became human"?

I am saying that God cannot become human. If He did He would not be God! That sounds simple enough! The person Jesus Christ did not exist until the Incarnation. Read Hebrews 10:5 and honor your promise not to argue with Scripture.
5. Wherefore when he cometh into the world, he saith, Sacrifice and offering thou wouldest not, but a body hast thou prepared me:


If you are going to insist that the Second Person of the Triune Godhead became human then God the Father and God the Holy Spirit became human because Scripture tells us:

Colossians 2:9,
9. For in him dwelleth all the fulness of the Godhead bodily.

That's an empty argument, if your logic held up you would also have to say that the Father and the H.S. walked on the earth, and died on the cross. You can't use that verse to say that if the Son did something that the other two automatically did it as well...If so there would be no trinity.

What was that you said about arguing with Scripture? The fulness of the Godhead is Father, Son, and Holy Spirit.

Because...I can't argue with Scripture.:thumbs:
 

OldRegular

Well-Known Member
Well, I think you have to say He was both Son AND Word for all eternity.

And if all the rest of this doesn't blow your mind, the "Son" who is refered to in Isaiah 7 is called the "Everlasting Father"!

So the Son, Word, Messiah, is also the Everlasting Father....:laugh:

There is only one God!
 

DHK

<b>Moderator</b>
I am saying that God cannot become human. If He did He would not be God!
Really? That is not what my Bible says.

John 1:14 And the Word was made flesh, and dwelt among us, (and we beheld his glory, the glory as of the only begotten of the Father,) full of grace and truth.

God became human (flesh).
 

OldRegular

Well-Known Member
Originally Posted by OldRegular
I am saying that God cannot become human. If He did He would not be God!

Really? That is not what my Bible says.

John 1:14 And the Word was made flesh, and dwelt among us, (and we beheld his glory, the glory as of the only begotten of the Father,) full of grace and truth.

God became human (flesh).

I will simply repeat what I have said in an earlier post:

It is false, and I believe heretical, doctrine to say that God the Son became human!

Does it make any difference whether we say God the Son became man or that He took on the form of man? In the Incarnation God the Son, the Second Person of the Godhead, laid aside His Glory but not His Divinity. He took upon Himself the nature of man, both body and soul, but He retained all the characteristics of Deity. In the Incarnate Son there is one person but two natures. Jesus Christ was truly God and truly man. The Apostle Paul writes of the divine-human natures of Jesus Christ as follows:

John 1:14
14. And the Word was made flesh, and dwelt among us, (and we beheld his glory, the glory as of the only begotten of the Father,) full of grace and truth.


John Gill writing about John 1:14 states:

“The same word, of whom so many things are said in the preceding verses; and is no other than the Son of God, or second person in the Trinity; for neither the Father, nor the Holy Ghost, were made flesh, as is here said of the word, but the Son only: and "flesh" here signifies, not a part of the body, nor the whole body only, but the whole human nature, consisting of a true body, and a reasonable soul; and is so called, to denote the frailty of it, being encompassed with infirmities, though not sinful; and to show, that it was a real human nature, and not a phantom, or appearance, that he assumed:and when he is said to be "made" flesh, this was not done by the change of one nature into another, the divine into the human, or the word into a man; but by the assumption of the human nature, the word, taking it into personal union with himself; whereby the natures are not altered; Christ remained what he was, and became what he was not; nor are they confounded, and blended together, and so make a third nature; nor are they separated, and divided, so as to constitute two persons, a divine person, and an human person; but are so united as to be but one person; and this is such an union, as can never be dissolved, and is the foundation of the virtue and efficacy of all Christ's works and actions, as Mediator:”

Colossians 2:9,
9. For in him dwelleth all the fulness of the Godhead bodily.

Hebrews 2:16
16. For verily he took not on [him the nature of] angels; but he took on [him] the seed of Abraham.

Hebrews 10:5
5. Wherefore when he cometh into the world, he saith, Sacrifice and offering thou wouldest not, but a body hast thou prepared me:

Romans 8:3
3. For what the law could not do, in that it was weak through the flesh, God sending his own Son in the likeness of sinful flesh, and for sin, condemned sin in the flesh:

Philippians 2:7
7. But made himself of no reputation, and took upon him the form of a servant, and was made in the likeness of men:


There is absolutely nothing in the above Scripture describing the incarnation which states or implies that God the Son became human. This issue was addressed at the Council of Chalcedon as follows:

Chalcedonian Creed (451 A.D.)
This creed was adopted at the Fourth Ecumenical Council, held at Chalcedon, located in what is now Turkey, in 451, as a response to certain heretical views concerning the nature of Christ. It established the orthodox view that Christ has two natures (human and divine) that are unified in one person.

________________________

We, then, following the holy Fathers, all with one consent, teach men to confess one and the same Son, our Lord Jesus Christ, the same perfect in Godhead and also perfect in manhood; truly God and truly man, of a reasonable [rational] soul and body; consubstantial [co-essential] with the Father according to the Godhead, and consubstantial with us according to the Manhood; in all things like unto us, without sin; begotten before all ages of the Father according to the Godhead, and in these latter days, for us and for our salvation, born of the Virgin Mary, the Mother of God, according to the Manhood; one and the same Christ, Son, Lord, only begotten, to be acknowledged in two natures, inconfusedly, unchangeably, indivisibly, inseparably; the distinction of natures being by no means taken away by the union, but rather the property of each nature being preserved, and concurring in one Person and one Subsistence, not parted or divided into two persons, but one and the same Son, and only begotten, God the Word, the Lord Jesus Christ; as the prophets from the beginning [have declared] concerning Him, and the Lord Jesus Christ Himself has taught us, and the Creed of the holy Fathers has handed down to us.

I would call the attention of all those who believe that Mary is the mother of God that Chalcedon simply states: Mary, the Mother of God, according to the Manhood.. Chalcedon states that Mary was the mother of the Human Nature of Jesus Christ, not the mother of the divine nature, not the mother of God.

I never said that Jesus Christ had a body before the incarnation. And I don't know where you get the idea my belief is influenced by Mormonism. You need to read my posts again!

Originally Posted by OldRegular
The claim that God became human is false and furthermore is foolish. Jesus Christ was fully God and fully man but the divine did not become human!

Chalcedon says it well: "to be acknowledged in two natures, inconfusedly, unchangeably, indivisibly, inseparably; the distinction of natures being by no means taken away by the union, but rather the property of each nature being preserved, and concurring in one Person and one Subsistence, not parted or divided into two persons."

If you can show anything in the above posts that is not orthodox Christianity I will repent in sackcloth and ashes!

I am simply saying that the Second Person of the Triune Godhead did not become a human being. John Gill says it as follows: and when he is said to be "made" flesh, this was not done by the change of one nature into another, the divine into the human, or the word into a man; but by the assumption of the human nature.
 

DHK

<b>Moderator</b>
Really? That is not what my Bible says.

John 1:14 And the Word was made flesh, and dwelt among us, (and we beheld his glory, the glory as of the only begotten of the Father,) full of grace and truth.

God became human (flesh).
The whole concept of the incarnation is that God became man.
This is what John 1:14 declares. The Word became flesh.

Philippians 2:6 who, existing in the form of God, didn't consider it robbery to be equal with God,
7 but emptied himself, taking the form of a servant, being made in the likeness of men.
8 And being found in human form, he humbled himself, becoming obedient to death, yes, the death of the cross. (WEB)

He became a man; became sin for us; as a man died and suffered for us, that he might pay the penalty that we could never pay. Though a man, he never sinned. He had no sin nature. Though a man; he still was God. God became man. That is the incarnation.
 

12strings

Active Member
I am saying that God cannot become human. If He did He would not be God! That sounds simple enough! The person Jesus Christ did not exist until the Incarnation. Read Hebrews 10:5 and honor your promise not to argue with Scripture.
5. Wherefore when he cometh into the world, he saith, Sacrifice and offering thou wouldest not, but a body hast thou prepared me:

I'm not denying that God the Father prepared a body for God the Word/Son. I don't even know what point you are trying to make with this verse, except I'll say this: If your belief is that the incarnation was simply the divine spirit inhabiting a human body, it is an incomplete view of the incarnation, and not consistent with the historical understanding.

What was that you said about arguing with Scripture? The fullness of the Godhead is Father, Son, and Holy Spirit.
[/QUOTE]

Agreed, however it does not follow that whatever one person of the trinity does, the other necessarily does.

I think the main difficulty is you see the word "Became" to mean that something in the divine was altered/lessened to "become" human. I simply use the word "became" to mean that the divine took on NOT ONLY human flesh, but the entirety of a human nature as well, yet without sin.

"became" is biblical language: "The Word BECAME flesh." The Word was God (jn. 1:1)...so "God" became flesh...what is flesh? It is Humanity....ie, God (2nd person of trinity) became human. Very Biblical. Jesus was a man, men are human.

In fact, Jesus Christ is STILL a human man. ("There IS [present tense] one mediator between God and man, the MAN Jesus Christ.")
 

12strings

Active Member
The author of the Book of Hebrews refers to the Son in the present, as He is now. It is that person, who was not known in the past as the Son, who created all things, though he was the same person.

John 1:1 In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God.
2 The same was in the beginning with God.
3 All things were made by him; and without him was not any thing made that was made.

The WORD created all things; without him was not any thing made that was made.

I know a person in the air force. He is a captain. It is perfectly acceptable English (or grammar) to say: "The captain, when he was young, was mischievous..." (referring to childhood days).

Again, the author of Hebrews is using Son, in the present, referring to the past. It is a title.

Is not "Word" also at title? Is not Jesus not referred to as the "Word" until the New Testament? You are applying a different set of rules to John than you are applying to Hebrews. John says the Word created all things...Hebrews says it was through the SON that all things were created. I believe both.
 

Bro. James

Well-Known Member
Site Supporter
Nuancing old nuances

Great is the mystery of Godliness...

God cannot be adequately described in human terminology nor membership in MENSA. All systematic theologies not withstanding He is still omnicient. We still struggle with Gen 1-11. Mars Hill will melt with fervent along with all the other works of man.

Preach the Word.

Even so, come Lord Jesus.

Bro. James
 

DHK

<b>Moderator</b>
Is not "Word" also at title? Is not Jesus not referred to as the "Word" until the New Testament? You are applying a different set of rules to John than you are applying to Hebrews. John says the Word created all things...Hebrews says it was through the SON that all things were created. I believe both.
We struggle with phrases such as "the lamb slain before the foundation of the world," yet in real time he was slain on the cross. That was witnessed by mankind. In the same way He may have been considered as the Son in eternity pass, but did not become the Son until he became "the only begotten Son, the only begotten of the Father." What do we do with these terms? Are they totally meaningless?

The only way that we can reconcile them is to consider that outside of the creation of man there is no time. Time was created for man. With God there is no time. As far as man is concerned Christ became man, became the Son when he was born. He became the sacrificial lamb when he was sacrificed.
John said:
Behold the Lamb of God which takes away the sin of the world.
He could have never said that before Christ came into the world, because Christ, the Son of God, didn't exist as such, though He existed as deity--deity which no man hath seen at any time.
 

OldRegular

Well-Known Member
The whole concept of the incarnation is that God became man.
This is what John 1:14 declares. The Word became flesh.

Philippians 2:6 who, existing in the form of God, didn't consider it robbery to be equal with God,
7 but emptied himself, taking the form of a servant, being made in the likeness of men.
8 And being found in human form, he humbled himself, becoming obedient to death, yes, the death of the cross. (WEB)

He became a man; became sin for us; as a man died and suffered for us, that he might pay the penalty that we could never pay. Though a man, he never sinned. He had no sin nature. Though a man; he still was God. God became man. That is the incarnation.

You are ignoring what the Scripture you posted says:

taking the form of a servant, being made in the likeness of men.

being found in human form

Nowhere does it say that the Second Person of the Trinity became a man. Chalcedon dealt with this very problem and answered it as well as could be possible I suppose. Please notice what the Chalcedon Creed says:

Chalcedonian Creed (451 A.D.)
This creed was adopted at the Fourth Ecumenical Council, held at Chalcedon, located in what is now Turkey, in 451, as a response to certain heretical views concerning the nature of Christ. It established the orthodox view that Christ has two natures (human and divine) that are unified in one person.

________________________

We, then, following the holy Fathers, all with one consent, teach men to confess one and the same Son, our Lord Jesus Christ, the same perfect in Godhead and also perfect in manhood; truly God and truly man, of a reasonable [rational] soul and body; consubstantial [co-essential] with the Father according to the Godhead, and consubstantial with us according to the Manhood; in all things like unto us, without sin; begotten before all ages of the Father according to the Godhead, and in these latter days, for us and for our salvation, born of the Virgin Mary, the Mother of God, according to the Manhood; one and the same Christ, Son, Lord, only begotten, to be acknowledged in two natures, inconfusedly, unchangeably, indivisibly, inseparably; the distinction of natures being by no means taken away by the union, but rather the property of each nature being preserved, and concurring in one Person and one Subsistence, not parted or divided into two persons, but one and the same Son, and only begotten, God the Word, the Lord Jesus Christ; as the prophets from the beginning [have declared] concerning Him, and the Lord Jesus Christ Himself has taught us, and the Creed of the holy Fathers has handed down to us.

Chalcedon states that the distinction of natures being by no means taken away by the union.

There were two natures in Jesus Christ, the divine nature of the Second person of the Trinity and the human nature, the seed of Abraham. These two natures remained distinct. Therefore the divine nature did not become a human nature!
 

OldRegular

Well-Known Member
I'm not denying that God the Father prepared a body for God the Word/Son. I don't even know what point you are trying to make with this verse, except I'll say this: If your belief is that the incarnation was simply the divine spirit inhabiting a human body, it is an incomplete view of the incarnation, and not consistent with the historical understanding.

I would say that this question was addressed at Chalcedon as well as could be addressed, I suppose. And I submit that Chalcedon is the historic understanding of the Incarnation.

Chalcedonian Creed (451 A.D.)
This creed was adopted at the Fourth Ecumenical Council, held at Chalcedon, located in what is now Turkey, in 451, as a response to certain heretical views concerning the nature of Christ. It established the orthodox view that Christ has two natures (human and divine) that are unified in one person.

________________________

We, then, following the holy Fathers, all with one consent, teach men to confess one and the same Son, our Lord Jesus Christ, the same perfect in Godhead and also perfect in manhood; truly God and truly man, of a reasonable [rational] soul and body; consubstantial [co-essential] with the Father according to the Godhead, and consubstantial with us according to the Manhood; in all things like unto us, without sin; begotten before all ages of the Father according to the Godhead, and in these latter days, for us and for our salvation, born of the Virgin Mary, the Mother of God, according to the Manhood; one and the same Christ, Son, Lord, only begotten, to be acknowledged in two natures, inconfusedly, unchangeably, indivisibly, inseparably;the distinction of natures being by no means taken away by the union, but rather the property of each nature being preserved, and concurring in one Person and one Subsistence, not parted or divided into two persons, but one and the same Son, and only begotten, God the Word, the Lord Jesus Christ; as the prophets from the beginning [have declared] concerning Him, and the Lord Jesus Christ Himself has taught us, and the Creed of the holy Fathers has handed down to us.

Notice that Chalcedon states: the distinction of natures being by no means taken away by the union. In the Incarnation the divine nature remains divine and the human nature remains human. Now this has been the orthodox doctrine of the Incarnation since Chalcedon with the exception of the false claim that Mary is the Mother of God [which is the false doctrine of the Roman and Orthodox Communions].
 

DHK

<b>Moderator</b>
You are ignoring what the Scripture you posted says:

taking the form of a servant, being made in the likeness of men.

being found in human form

Nowhere does it say that the Second Person of the Trinity became a man. Chalcedon dealt with this very problem and answered it as well as could be possible I suppose. Please notice what the Chalcedon Creed says:



Chalcedon states that the distinction of natures being by no means taken away by the union.

There were two natures in Jesus Christ, the divine nature of the Second person of the Trinity and the human nature, the seed of Abraham. These two natures remained distinct. Therefore the divine nature did not become a human nature!
Don't quote to me Chalcedon. It only shows to me that you are putting the words of men to be of greater authority than the inspired Word of God. Are you unable to deal with Scripture. I quoted Scripture for you, and explained my position through Scripture. Are you not able to refute it? If not, then consider my position as correct. That is all I have to say on the matter. Christ became man. John 1:14.
 

12strings

Active Member
I would say that this question was addressed at Chalcedon as well as could be addressed, I suppose. And I submit that Chalcedon is the historic understanding of the Incarnation.

Notice that Chalcedon states: the distinction of natures being by no means taken away by the union. In the Incarnation the divine nature remains divine and the human nature remains human. Now this has been the orthodox doctrine of the Incarnation since Chalcedon with the exception of the false claim that Mary is the Mother of God [which is the false doctrine of the Roman and Orthodox Communions].

I agree that the divine nature did not become a human nature, rather it took on a human nature, BECOMING completely human, while remaining fully God.

I agree with DHK, you are ignoring John 1:14...
-"The word BECAME flesh."
-"THe word" = God (jn. 1:1)
-"Flesh = Human"
-Conclusion: God Became Human.

SO...John says the Word BECAME flesh...other scriptures say he "took on" flesh. Which is it? BOTH! It's simply different language to describe the indescribable...but it cannot be proven to be unbiblical to say that the 2nd person of trinity BECAME a man.
 

OldRegular

Well-Known Member
I agree that the divine nature did not become a human nature, rather it took on a human nature, BECOMING completely human, while remaining fully God.

I agree with DHK, you are ignoring John 1:14...
-"The word BECAME flesh."
-"THe word" = God (jn. 1:1)
-"Flesh = Human"
-Conclusion: God Became Human.

SO...John says the Word BECAME flesh...other scriptures say he "took on" flesh. Which is it? BOTH! It's simply different language to describe the indescribable...but it cannot be proven to be unbiblical to say that the 2nd person of trinity BECAME a man.

I am not ignoring John 1:14. In fact that was the first verse of Scripture I posted. To say that the Word became flesh does not say that God the Word became a man. The idea that God became a man smacks of the old Roman demigods becoming humans.
 

Earth Wind and Fire

Well-Known Member
Site Supporter
I am not ignoring John 1:14. In fact that was the first verse of Scripture I posted. To say that the Word became flesh does not say that God the Word became a man. The idea that God became a man smacks of the old Roman demigods becoming humans.

is "Incarnation" the correct terminology to use?
 

DHK

<b>Moderator</b>
I am not ignoring John 1:14. In fact that was the first verse of Scripture I posted. To say that the Word became flesh does not say that God the Word became a man. The idea that God became a man smacks of the old Roman demigods becoming humans.
That is nonsense. Stop reading Roman mythology then and start reading your Bible! :rolleyes:

Webster 1828
INCARNA'TION, n. The act of clothing with flesh.
1. The act of assuming flesh, or of taking a human body and the nature of man; as the incarnation of the Son of God.

Easton's Bible Dictionary
Incarnation
that act of grace whereby Christ took our human nature into union with his Divine Person, became man. Christ is both God and man. Human attributes and actions are predicated of him, and he of whom they are predicated is God. A Divine Person was united to a human nature (Ac 20:28; Ro 8:32; 1Co 2:8; Heb 2:11-14; 1Ti 3:16; Ga 4:4, etc.). The union is hypostatical, i.e., is personal; the two natures are not mixed or confounded, and it is perpetual.

Incarnation
The incarnation took place when Christ took our human nature on himself and became a human being.
Christ is both God and man. A Divine Person was united to a human nature (Acts 20:28; Rom. 8:32; 1 Cor. 2:8; Heb. 2:11-14; 1 Tim. 3:16; Gal. 4:4, etc.). The union is hypostatical, i.e., is personal; the two natures are not mixed, and it is perpetual.
—AMG's Encyclopedia of Bible Facts

All three of these dictionaries and others say the same basic truth--Christ became a man; became human--became flesh. They are all synonymous statements.



(CEV) The Word became a human being and lived here with us. We saw his true glory, the glory of the only Son of the Father. From him all the kindness and all the truth of God have come down to us.
--There is the odd translation that will even translate it this way. This is the Contemporary English Version, close to a paraphrase, nevertheless it does show the truth of the matter.



When all the evidence stacks up against you, how can you say, or at least infer: "I'm right and everyone else is wrong."
 

OldRegular

Well-Known Member
I know that folks on this Forum are prone to ignore the writings of some of the old Saints of God. I have previously posted the remarks of John Gill regarding the Incarnation and they are worth repeating:

The Apostle John writes of the Incarnation:

John 1:14
14. And the Word was made flesh, and dwelt among us, (and we beheld his glory, the glory as of the only begotten of the Father,) full of grace and truth.


John Gill writing about John 1:14 states:

“The same word, of whom so many things are said in the preceding verses; and is no other than the Son of God, or second person in the Trinity; for neither the Father, nor the Holy Ghost, were made flesh, as is here said of the word, but the Son only: and "flesh" here signifies, not a part of the body, nor the whole body only, but the whole human nature, consisting of a true body, and a reasonable soul; and is so called, to denote the frailty of it, being encompassed with infirmities, though not sinful; and to show, that it was a real human nature, and not a phantom, or appearance, that he assumed:and when he is said to be "made" flesh, this was not done by the change of one nature into another, the divine into the human, or the word into a man; but by the assumption of the human nature, the word, taking it into personal union with himself; whereby the natures are not altered; Christ remained what he was, and became what he was not; nor are they confounded, and blended together, and so make a third nature; nor are they separated, and divided, so as to constitute two persons, a divine person, and an human person; but are so united as to be but one person; and this is such an union, as can never be dissolved, and is the foundation of the virtue and efficacy of all Christ's works and actions, as Mediator:”

Notice that John Gill states clearly: when he is said to be "made" flesh, this was not done by the change of one nature into another, the divine into the human, or the word into a man; but by the assumption of the human nature, the word, taking it into personal union with himself; whereby the natures are not altered; Christ remained what he was,

What Gill says is perfectly consistent with Chalcedon!

Then there is a much newer Saint that I believe properly understands the Incarnation, Dr. Martyn Lloyd-Jones. In his book God the Father, God the Son Dr. Lloyd-Jones writes, page 257, more simple than Gill:

The next definition I put like this: we must never so state the doctrine of the incarnation as to give the impression, therefore, that we say that the Son of God was changed into a man.

The remainder of Martyn Lloyd-Jones' discussion of the Incarnation is perfectly consistent with Chalcedon!
 

OldRegular

Well-Known Member
That is nonsense. Stop reading Roman mythology then and start reading your Bible! :rolleyes:

I understand what I read!

Webster 1828
INCARNA'TION, n. The act of clothing with flesh.
1. The act of assuming flesh, or of taking a human body and the nature of man; as the incarnation of the Son of God.
Not that Webster is the authority on the Incarnation but please note that he does not say that the Son of God became a man. He says
act of assuming flesh, or of taking a human body and the nature of man

Easton's Bible Dictionary
Incarnation
that act of grace whereby Christ took our human nature into union with his Divine Person, became man. Christ is both God and man. Human attributes and actions are predicated of him, and he of whom they are predicated is God. A Divine Person was united to a human nature (Ac 20:28; Ro 8:32; 1Co 2:8; Heb 2:11-14; 1Ti 3:16; Ga 4:4, etc.). The union is hypostatical, i.e., is personal; the two natures are not mixed or confounded, and it is perpetual.

Easton almost gets it then screws it up. He says
Christ took our human nature into union with his Divine Person,
. That is consistent with Chalcedon but he goes too far and says
became man.

Incarnation
The incarnation took place when Christ took our human nature on himself and became a human being.
Christ is both God and man. A Divine Person was united to a human nature (Acts 20:28; Rom. 8:32; 1 Cor. 2:8; Heb. 2:11-14; 1 Tim. 3:16; Gal. 4:4, etc.). The union is hypostatical, i.e., is personal; the two natures are not mixed, and it is perpetual.
—AMG's Encyclopedia of Bible Facts

AMG's definition is somewhat confused, not clear what he means!

All three of these dictionaries and others say the same basic truth--Christ became a man; became human--became flesh. They are all synonymous statements.
I don't care how many dictionaries you use God did not become a man. He took on the form of a man. The two are not the same!!



(CEV) The Word became a human being and lived here with us. We saw his true glory, the glory of the only Son of the Father. From him all the kindness and all the truth of God have come down to us.
--There is the odd translation that will even translate it this way. This is the Contemporary English Version, close to a paraphrase, nevertheless it does show the truth of the matter.

The CEV is false and is a perfect illustration of the problem with paraphrases! Some poor soul will read that stuff and believe it!



When all the evidence stacks up against you, how can you say, or at least infer: "I'm right and everyone else is wrong."

I am not saying I am right and everyone else is wrong. Gill is right., Lloyd-Jones is right. Chalcedon is correct except for the nonsense about Mary being the Mother of God. Webster almost gets it and I am right!
 
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