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LifeWay private prayer language research disappointing

Revmitchell

Well-Known Member
Site Supporter
Allan said:
Since it is your thread brother, I will not continue with the 'back and forth'.
I agree also with the scripture that it is a sign gift for the lost, specifically to Isreal.

As I said I am not trying to shut down discussion. But only point out that since the nature of tongues is clearly given that really makes any thought about some prayer language a moot point. However I am not sure where you get that it was for Israel. That is the first I have heard that.
 
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Allan

Active Member
Revmitchell said:
As I said I am not trying to shut down discussion. But only point out that since the nature of tongues is clearly given that really makes any thought about some prayer language a moot point. However I am not sure where you get that it was for Israel. That is the first I have heard that.
Oh I know you aren't trying to shut it down.

Regarding Isreal, Really?? (btw- I stated specifically of Israel but not only of Israel)

It is connected here:
1Cr 14:21 In the law it is written, With [men of] other tongues and other lips will I speak unto this people; and yet for all that will they not hear me, saith the Lord.
1Cr 14:22 Wherefore tongues are for a sign, not to them that believe, but to them that believe not: but prophesying [serveth] not for them that believe not, but for them which believe.
From Isa 28:11 when Israel had stood in disobedience and in rejection God declared their condemnation for their unbelief would be shown through sounds of other or unknown tongues. In Isaiah it refered to the invading armies to over took them and brought them into slavery. Paul was referencing this as the same type of proof to the Jews in their unbelief of Christ but instead of an invadiing army to hold them captive it would be their

That is a very brief discription of course but there is much more of it. It might be something interesting for you to look at or into :)
 
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canadyjd

Well-Known Member
Allan said:
1. Tongues have nothing to do with the Spirit of God praying through you.
I have never made such an argument.

2. Vs 2 in no way is making the statement that the person speaking in tongues is praying (as in a private prayer language) to God. You have to take a huge leap of logic (even leaving logic) to come up with the supposition.
I don't think it is a "huge leap of logic" when the ongoing context supports it.

I Cor. 14:2

"For one who speaks in a tongue does not speak to men, but to God....."

Compare with I Cor.14:13-17

"Therefore, let one who speaks in a tongue pray that he may interpret. (14)For if I pray in a tongue, my spirit prays, but my mind is unfruitful.

Clearly, Paul here concedes that praying in a tongue engages the spirit but not the mind.

(15)What is the outcome then? I shall pray with the spirit and I shall pray with the mind also; I shall sing with the spirit and I shall sing with the mind also...

Paul encourages them to engage their minds when they pray and sing praises (which amounts to blessing God and giving thanks as the next verse demonstrates.)

(16)Otherwise if you bless in the spirit only, how will the one who fills the place of the ungifted say the Amen at your giving of thanks, since he does not know what you are saying? (17) For you are giving thanks well enough, but the other man is not edified.

Verse 17 clearly indicates that Paul concedes the possibility that when they "bless in the spirit" (which he linked with speaking in tongues in verse 14: Context, context, context) they are, in fact, giving thanks to God.

He encourages them not to speak in tongues in the church because it does not edify others, and is no benefit to unbelievers.

However, this passage does not state they are praying but speaking.
Actually, the context demonstrates that speaking, praying, singing, blessing, and giving thanks were all done "in a tongue".
Secondly, the Paul states that since no one understands what he is saying (not praying) the only person who benifits is God because what he is saying is meaningless to the others. If you will notice the very first thing Paul actually does is show them that they are not using this gift for the purpose God give it - to benifit or edify the body (1 Cor 12:7). Therefore Paul states let the message (not prayer) remain silent (between you and the Lord).
I don't disagree with you here, and I have, in fact, already stated much the same thing several times. I would point out, however, that the instruction to "remain silent" is accompanied by "in the church".
Thus you see in verse 3 the word "but.." showing a comparison being brought forth in the manner in which tongues was being used and not the gift of tongues itself.
You are simply wrong, here. The "but" in verse 3 compares the results of one speaking in a tongue "no one understands...he speaks mysteries" to the results of one who prophesies "edification, exhortation and consolation".
Now why did Paul not state you are speaking to God iwhen no one understands you like in verse 2 but instead stated they are speaking into the air. Because the intent of Paul was not to say it is a private prayer language but that what was being done is meaningless and unprofitable according to the purpose for which the gifts are given.
It is meaningless and unprofitable to those around the person speaking in a tongue.
Chapter 12 established that the gifts were given to benifit the body or the Church and was not for self edification. In chapter 14 he is rebuking them for the abuse of it (as a status symbol) AND ignorance regarding their usage of it. Thus his beginning in chapter 12 "brethren, I would not have you stay ignorant regarding spiritual gifts". What Paul was doing was first explaining what it was for and the how it was to be used so that everything would be done properly AND in order (regarding the disruption of fellowship)
I don't think you're reading my posts very well. I have stated much the same thing several times now.

peace to you:praying:
 
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