canadyjd said:
Apparently, it cannot be proved or disproved. That is probably why Paul gave instructions concerning its practice, essentially limiting it to a personal discourse between the person and God.
Wrong, and that is a very poor understanding of the scripture you are trying twist out of context to fit an opinion. (BTW - it has been dispoved)
1. Tongues have nothing to do with the Spirit of God praying through you. When the Spirit makes intercession he does not need nor does he use you but He does this with groanings that
can not be
uttered - (meaning no air passing over the lips). -Rom 8:26.
2. Vs 2 in no way is making the statement that the person speaking in tongues is praying (as in a private prayer language) to God. You have to take a huge leap of logic (even leaving logic) to come up with the supposition. I'm not trying to be rude here but I know that is how it is coming accross, so I appoligize the way it is reading. However, this passage does not state they are praying but speaking. Secondly, the Paul states that since no one understands what he is saying (not praying) the only person who benifits is God because what he is saying is meaningless to the others. If you will notice the very first thing Paul actually does is show them that they are not using this gift for the purpose God give it - to benifit or edify the body (1 Cor 12:7). Therefore Paul states let the message (not prayer) remain silent (between you and the Lord).
Thus you see in verse 3 the word "but.." showing a comparison being brought forth in the manner in which tongues was being used and not the gift of tongues itself.
3. You will also note the same type of wording is used a little fruther down illistrating the point I previously gave that it is not a prayer language that you are praying between you and God but is empty words rattled into the air.
1Cr 14:9 So likewise ye, except ye utter by the tongue words easy to be understood, how shall it be known what is spoken? for ye shall speak into the air.
Now why did Paul not state you are speaking to God iwhen no one understands you like in verse 2 but instead stated they are speaking into the air. Because the intent of Paul was not to say it is a private prayer language but that what was being done is meaningless and unprofitable according to the purpose for which the gifts are given.
Paul did not make a specific statement that the estatic utterance was not an actual communication with God. His concern was for the disruption of the fellowship.
Again, read the scripture in it's context and stop trying to proof-text it out of context. Chapter 12 established that the gifts were given to benifit the body or the Church and was not for self edification. In chapter 14 he is rebuking them for the abuse of it (as a status symbol) AND ignorance regarding their usage of it. Thus his beginning in chapter 12 "brethren, I would not have you stay ignorant regarding spiritual gifts". What Paul was doing was first explaining what it was for and the how it was to be used so that everything would be done properly AND in order (regarding the disruption of fellowship)
It was not edifying to others, making it inferior. It was self-centered, making it inferior. It disrupted the fellowship, making it inferior. It would make people think you are insane, making it inferior. It did nothing to further the cause of Christ in the world (unlike proclamation of the gospel), making it inferior.
Again, you miss the entire point of the chapter here. It is inferior only because it only edifies when there is an interpreter. But if you have an interpreter it is then elevated to the same status as that of prophesy which everyone was permitted to do. You seem to forget or intentionally ignore the fact that Paul states he will not pray in a tongue unless it is undstood by him nor will he sing in one because (and this the point ) his 'understanding' is unfruitful. Tongues without understanding of the language does the speaker absolutely no good and has absolutely NO benifit to them - unless they understand. Which is why Paul states if you speak in a tongue you do not understand pray that you will understand. God the Holy Spirit did not add that to get some peoples hopes up, but meant for us to know we should know what we speak and if not pray that He will make it so. It isn't a potential possibility to understand but a statement regarding the will of God that we are to understand the tongue we are speaking in.
At the end, however, Paul conceded the possibility that it was a legitimate communication with God since he gave intructions for its practice.
Again incorrect. But just in case, please reveal this verse my bible is missing.
He did not say "if you think that jibberish is talking to God, then you are not welcome here!"You have not addressed the fact that Paul gave instructions for its private use ("let him talk to himself and God").
No where, not once did Paul address any such 'private usage'. There is NO instructions on it's private usage. Everthing Paul makes reference to here is about being in public and for everyone to hear. ie:
1Cr 14:16 Else when thou shalt bless with the spirit, how shall he that occupieth the room of the unlearned say Amen at thy giving of thanks, seeing he understandeth not what thou sayest?
1Cr 14:17 For thou verily givest thanks well, but the other is not edified.
Speaking in tongues without anyone to interpret will make people think you are crazy because you will sound like an idiot to them who is just spuing childish gibberish.
What Paul constantly is addresses here is
speaking in a tongue and not praying. When Paul speaks of praying in a tongue he specificies it is to be done with understanding of that tongue for it to be of any profit to churches edification first and then to your own.
raying: