I don't think Romans 5:18 is relevant to the Calvinist vs Arminian view of the extent of the atonement.
???
What do you think the "one act of righteousness" is, if not the atonement?
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I don't think Romans 5:18 is relevant to the Calvinist vs Arminian view of the extent of the atonement.
I don't think Romans 5:18 is relevant to the Calvinist vs Arminian view of the extent of the atonement.
How do you justify that conclusion from the text?
Read the words of the passage. What it is teaching us is that just as one man is able to make all sinners, so also one man makes us righteous. "The design of this section is the illustration of the doctrine of the justification of sinners on the ground of the righteousness of Christ, by a reference to the condemnation of men for the sin of Adam." Look at the context. No matter what you believe regarding the "L" that is not what is being discussed in that passage. This is why you need to starting reading come good commentaries.This astounds me that you can't discern the relevancy of this passage to the 'L' in TULIP, or to the title of this thread, which happens to be posted in the C vs A forum.
Regarding the title of this thread, in itself it is a set-up for conflict as it starts out by labeling one system "insanity". Still, in post 5 I made some legitimate suggestions which you did not answer. Others did though as discussion went fine, and respectfully, until you came on with your usual technique. You introduce a verse out of your hat and then hammer away, demanding a one sentence answer and keep repeating the question as if that will somehow convince people you are right. For some reason it really sets you off if I quote someone who might actually know something which leads me to believe that just as you post, you value your own opinion, and nobodies like me, as equal to the great theologians and Biblical scholars. This is a common problem ever since the internet gave us all access to see ourselves as it were, in print.or to the title of this thread, which happens to be posted in the C vs A forum.
I just showed you
Rom 5:18 The all here is limited to the many in Vs 19 and its the elect, who are Justified by Christs Death alone.
Regarding the title of this thread, in itself it is a set-up for conflict as it starts out by labeling one system "insanity".
Still, in post 5 I made some legitimate suggestions which you did not answer.
Read the words of the passage. What it is teaching us is that just as one man is able to make all sinners, so also one man makes us righteous. "The design of this section is the illustration of the doctrine of the justification of sinners on the ground of the righteousness of Christ, by a reference to the condemnation of men for the sin of Adam." Look at the context. No matter what you believe regarding the "L" that is not what is being discussed in that passage. This is why you need to starting reading come good commentaries.
That's a poetic way of saying it but that doesn't address the question I brought up in post 5. Some brands of Calvinism teach that those who are not elect have not been included in the atoning sacrifice of Christ and therefore it is impossible that they could (even theoretically) be saved. Do you believe that or not? In other words, is there an actual offer of the salvation to everyone in such a way that they could be saved if they would respond. (I'm not asking if all have an equal chance, or if all have the desire or ability, just this - if they would respond could they be saved or has the atonement occurred in such a way that they are sunk at that point. If the Primitive Baptist is different from this explain to me how as I really don't know.I prefer the Primitive Baptist 'Particular Redemption' in lieu of Limited Atonement. He bought the whole field, but He particularly bought the treasure hidden in that field, i.e., 'the Savior of all men, especially them that believe'.
That was a quote from Hodge that I forgot to reference and I apologize for that. The way I understand it is that Paul is trying to make clear that even though the point is true that by one man sin came upon all men he wanted to make sure we would not forget that we are also participants in that we personally are sinners too. He said that because later, when he said we were justified by the actions of one (Christ) that we would not try to make that into some kind of universal salvation. In other words we still have to respond to the gospel message.Have to disagree with you Dave. The text is clear
"just as through one man sin entered the world"
and
"death through sin"
why
"because all sinned"
thus
"death spread to all men"
We are not condemned because of Adam's sin but for our own. A consequence of Adam's sin was physical death.
We can know this because of Romans 5:13-14. Even though man was not held accountable for their sins prior to the law all still died.
That's a poetic way of saying it but that doesn't address the question I brought up in post 5.
Some brands of Calvinism teach that those who are not elect have not been included in the atoning sacrifice of Christ and therefore it is impossible that they could (even theoretically) be saved. Do you believe that or not?
In other words, is there an actual offer of the salvation to everyone in such a way that they could be saved if they would respond.
if they would respond could they be saved
If the Primitive Baptist is different from this explain to me how as I really don't know.
So how do you reconcile the above statement with the Primitive Baptist view of the atonement you linked at the end? Are you saying that there was some aspect of the atonement that was universal but that there is another aspect that was particular.I 'lean' to Romans 5:18 meaning that the atonement removed Adam's curse from humankind and 'all men' are now born innocent, i.e., NOT BOUND FOR HELL FROM BIRTH, as many Calvinists believe.
Talk about waffling. See if you can answer the first point above. Why is it waffling to say that Christ died for everyone? The work of the Holy Spirit is essential for someone to come to Christ. God is sovereign at that point, not in limiting the atonement. The only place where I waffle is that I admit that from God's viewpoint, since he had knowledge specifically of who he would save when a Calvinist says that the atonement was sufficient for everyone but yet meant for the elect I can see their point. It is not the way I express it, mainly because I have seen the difficulty this gives most people, who are viewing all this from their human point of view. And why not?<sigh> Why can't you discern the truth and take a stance from the scriptures instead doing all this back-and-forth waffling?
They do. And surprisingly the answer is exactly as I have been saying.Does this sound like just any ol' body can be saved? Doesn't Owen or Bunyan or Hodge cover this?
Yes. I agree. So the problem is that they don't believe, not that they have been left out of the atonement. That's what I said in post 5. Welcome aboard.Only the heavenly born elect can believe.
Correct again. And that is the reason, not that the atonement did not apply to them.If they're not heavenly born elect they can't respond. It's FOOLISHNESS to them. They cannot know it.
Yes. G.C. Morgan has a lot to say on this as he talks about people being overcome by sinful tendencies.Adam's disobedience lead to the whole human race to be born with a sin nature.
That was John Bunyan's exact argument too.And if Christ atonement did not cover everyone, no yet lost persons can know to believe they were included!
So how do you reconcile the above statement with the Primitive Baptist view of the atonement you linked at the end?
Are you saying that there was some aspect of the atonement that was universal but that there is another aspect that was particular.
See if you can answer the first point above.
Why is it waffling to say that Christ died for everyone?
the problem is that they don't believe
not that they have been left out of the atonement. That's what I said in post 5.
Correct again. And that is the reason, not that the atonement did not apply to them.
That passage is not about different aspects of the atonement. It is saying that God is the saviour of all men, with the added statement to clarify that this is not talking about universalism.10 For to this end we labor and strive, because we have our hope set on the living God, who is the Saviour of all men, specially of them that believe. 1 Tim 4:10
You really can't give an answer. Can you? It's OK to say you don't know but you do know as well as I do. The simple fact is, if at the atonement, there are those functionally left out or not included (by the actual function of what Christ did) - then that is indeed saying something completely different than saying that those that are lost are lost because they don't believe. It doesn't matter if you are a free willer who puts it all on the person or if you are like me who believes that a person will not come without a direct and possibly even a creative work of the Holy Spirit. The difference here is huge. And that is the issue of this thread. When it comes to it, you and the Primitive Baptists are equivocating on this with infants. You want to be as strict as any Calvinist when it comes to the scope of the atonement yet weasel out when the implications of your belief become apparent. I actually agree with what you are trying to do. I just point out that in that you are waffling too. Welcome to the wafflers.What point is that Dave? Again, I see no question mark.
That passage is not about different aspects of the atonement. It is saying that God is the saviour of all men, with the added statement to clarify that this is not talking about universalism.