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Literal Interpretation?

Discussion in '2003 Archive' started by Tim, Feb 5, 2003.

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  1. Tim

    Tim New Member

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    Preach,
    Thanks for your comments. I'm not really advocating an abandonment of literal or plain sense, just saying that it is not always the best way to understand a prophetic passage.
    In regard to Acts 15, do you take Scofield's view of the passage? I have a hard time with that view there as well. James' introduction (v.15) and conclusion (v.19) seem to apply the prophecy of Amos directly to the situation facing the church at that time.
     
    #21 Tim, Feb 6, 2003
  2. Artimaeus

    Artimaeus Active Member

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    John 10:9 I am the door: by me if any man enter in, he shall be saved, and shall go in and out, and find pasture.

    Interpreting the Bible literally does not mean that you have to think Jesus had two hinges, and a latch. That would be goofy and no one does that. To believe that we are free to interpret the Bible in any secondary spiritual manner we see fit is equally goofy and no one does that either. While the tern "literal" has taken a beating the concept behind it hasn't. As has been said, "If the plain sense makes sense seek no other sense", but, "If the plain sense makes no sense then seek another sense." Just seek the truth and not whatever fanciful story some creative person can come up with. God wrote a book that the vast majority of us regular people could understand with only a few places that require some deeper study. Your basis of how you interpret the Bioble is probably the single most important decision you will make in your Christian life. Just ask yourself one question. Would God make it simple so that I could understand or complicated so that only the elite, scholarly, "spiritual" people can tell me what it "really" means?
     
    #22 Artimaeus, Feb 7, 2003
  3. go2church

    go2church Active Member
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    I have seen the literal light!..... now sitting and waiting for Elijah ;)
     
    #23 go2church, Feb 7, 2003
  4. Bartholomew

    Bartholomew New Member

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    Re: prophecy.

    I think many people don't realise that prophecy can have more than one fulfilment. For example, Isaiah 7:

    14 Therefore the Lord himself shall give you [Ahaz] a sign; Behold, a virgin shall conceive, and bear a son, and shall call his name Immanuel.

    Matthew says this was fulfilled in Christ. But how could that have been a sign to Ahaz? He was dead when Jesus was born! Besides, the passage continues:

    15 Butter and honey shall he eat, that he may know to refuse the evil, and choose the good.
    16 For before the child shall know to refuse the evil, and choose the good, the land that thou abhorrest shall be forsaken of both her kings.

    How can this refer to Christ??? But look at Isaiah 8:

    3 And I went unto the prophetess; and she conceived, and bare a son. Then said the LORD to me, Call his name Mahershalalhashbaz.
    4 For before the child shall have knowledge to cry, My father, and my mother, the riches of Damascus and the spoil of Samaria shall be taken away before the king of Assyria.

    There we have it!!! Part of the prophecy was fulfilled in the short term! But that didn't mean the terms that weren't fulfilled would never be! Mary wasn't 'in the spirit of a virgin'! She was a literal virgin! Conclusion? Prophecies can have more than one fulfilment. If there is a partial near-fulfilment, there will be a future full (literal)-fulfilment.

    Your friend and brother,

    Bartholomew
     
    #24 Bartholomew, Feb 7, 2003
  5. Tim

    Tim New Member

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    Is the literal (or physical) fulfillment of a prophecy really as important as a spiritual fulfillment of that prophecy? Spiritual realities are actually more significant.
    Take the Acts 15:13-19 passage for example. Isn't the building of the spiritual house of God far more significant than the rebuliding of a physical tabernacle? It seems that James is saying that Amos' prophecy was being fulfilled in a spiritual way by the salvation of a remnant of Jews and of Gentiles joining the early Jewish church. Praise God that spiritual reality has come to pass! It is the ultimate fulfillment. Why would I (or James for that matter) care about a physical building in comparison to that?
     
    #25 Tim, Feb 7, 2003
  6. Daniel David

    Daniel David New Member

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    Tim, it matters greatly if God did indeed intend this passage to be literal. The spiritual aspect would not be "greater" than. It would just be different.

    It is entirely possible to say that James was telling the Jews that God is not done with ethic Israel and still plans on restoring them. Paul agreed (Rom. 11).
     
    #26 Daniel David, Feb 7, 2003
  7. just-want-peace

    just-want-peace Well-Known Member
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    Just can't get much more sensible than this!! [​IMG]

    Too much "learning" has corrupted many an otherwise sensible person; IE: Some people are educated beyond their intelligence, and so follows much of the warped & skewed spiritualizing of what is common & plain scripture!
     
    #27 just-want-peace, Feb 7, 2003
  8. Tim

    Tim New Member

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    Actually, I believe that James implying a spiritual interpretation of Amos makes a lot more "common sense" than applying a literal interpretation here. Bear with me as I try to make my case:

    The question before the church in Acts 15 was, "Should the Gentiles be allowed to join in with the Jewish Christians without acting as Jews?" After much discussion, James (as leader) gives his conclusion on the question at hand--Yes they should. Why? Because Amos prophesied such a coming together to worship the Lord. The very thing that was happening in Acts 15.

    Now if James was really saying that some future day God would bring together Jews and Gentiles in worship at the tabernacle, then the natural reaction of the sceptics would be, "O.K., when that day comes, we'll let the Gentiles join in worship with us as Gentiles--but for now, they'd better practice the Jewish law!"

    Remember how the Jews kept the Samaritans from helping them build the temple in Ezra 4? They didn't talk about what God was prophesying for the future--they were dealing with their current situation, so no non-Jews allowed! (They didn't have John 4, but they did have prophecies of Gentile conversion).

    James had to be applying Amos' prophesy directly to the situation in the early church, otherwise it's irrelevant to the discussion at hand --hardly worthy of a concluding statement on the matter.

    Finally, what about John 4? How would Jesus' teaching there be reconciled with the need for another physical tabernacle to be rebuilt for worship? Jesus said that the place of worship was now insignificant to true worshippers. The church as the spiritual temple of God is pervasive New Testament theology.
     
    #28 Tim, Feb 8, 2003
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