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looking for some clarification

T

thisnumbersdisconnected

New Member
Judith said:
You make my point. He was not omnipresent nor was He omniscient. He was limited because of taking on flesh.
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Again, utter foolishness.

John 1, NASB

43 The next day He purposed to go into Galilee, and He found Philip. And Jesus said to him, "Follow Me."
44 Now Philip was from Bethsaida, of the city of Andrew and Peter.
45 Philip found Nathanael and said to him, "We have found Him of whom Moses in the Law and also the Prophets wrote --Jesus of Nazareth, the son of Joseph."
46 Nathanael said to him, "Can any good thing come out of Nazareth ?" Philip said to him, "Come and see."
47 Jesus saw Nathanael coming to Him, and said of him, "Behold, an Israelite indeed, in whom there is no deceit!"
48 Nathanael said to Him, "How do You know me?" Jesus answered and said to him, "Before Philip called you, when you were under the fig tree, I saw you."
49 Nathanael answered Him, "Rabbi, You are the Son of God; You are the King of Israel."
50 Jesus answered and said to him, "Because I said to you that I saw you under the fig tree, do you believe? You will see greater things than these."
51 And He said to him, "Truly, truly, I say to you, you will see the heavens opened and the angels of God ascending and descending on the Son of Man."​

Tell me, Judith, how could Jesus possibly speak to Nathaniel in this manner if He was not both omniscient and omnipresent?
 
Judith

Judith

Well-Known Member
Site Supporter
Yeshua1 said:
actually, Jesus was showing them that as God, he could get to the Spirit of the law, while they were stuck in the letter of it!

just as the law demanded death of King david, but God in Grace saved and spared his life, jesus spared the woman caught in adultery...

just as He told them" you have heard Moses say to you, but I say to you"...

While under the adminisration of the Law in Isreal, those sins demanded death, but now under the Covenant of grace thru Yeshua, we were tobe under the Spirit of that Law!
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They were still under law during the time of Christ on earth. Jesus followed the law with the woman.
 
Judith

Judith

Well-Known Member
Site Supporter
thisnumbersdisconnected said:
Again, utter foolishness.

John 1, NASB

43 The next day He purposed to go into Galilee, and He found Philip. And Jesus said to him, "Follow Me."
44 Now Philip was from Bethsaida, of the city of Andrew and Peter.
45 Philip found Nathanael and said to him, "We have found Him of whom Moses in the Law and also the Prophets wrote --Jesus of Nazareth, the son of Joseph."
46 Nathanael said to him, "Can any good thing come out of Nazareth ?" Philip said to him, "Come and see."
47 Jesus saw Nathanael coming to Him, and said of him, "Behold, an Israelite indeed, in whom there is no deceit!"
48 Nathanael said to Him, "How do You know me?" Jesus answered and said to him, "Before Philip called you, when you were under the fig tree, I saw you."
49 Nathanael answered Him, "Rabbi, You are the Son of God; You are the King of Israel."
50 Jesus answered and said to him, "Because I said to you that I saw you under the fig tree, do you believe? You will see greater things than these."
51 And He said to him, "Truly, truly, I say to you, you will see the heavens opened and the angels of God ascending and descending on the Son of Man."​

Tell me, Judith, how could Jesus possibly speak to Nathaniel in this manner if He was not both omniscient and omnipresent?
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John 8:28
 
T

thisnumbersdisconnected

New Member
Judith said:
That makes no sense what so ever.
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Not if you don't want to understand, it doesn't. Otherwise it makes perfect sense.

Judith said:
John 8:28
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... does not discuss omniscience, nor negate Jesus' omniscience. It does not make Him inferior to the Father, as does your claim that He "lost" His omniscience while in the flesh. Jesus' statement does confirm the excellence of His doctrine of obedience to God and asserts the origin, authority and divinity of that doctrine.
 
Judith

Judith

Well-Known Member
Site Supporter
thisnumbersdisconnected said:
Not if you don't want to understand, it doesn't. Otherwise it makes perfect sense.

... does not discuss omniscience, nor negate Jesus' omniscience. It does not make Him inferior to the Father, as does your claim that He "lost" His omniscience while in the flesh. Jesus' statement does confirm the excellence of His doctrine of obedience to God and asserts the origin, authority and divinity of that doctrine.
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His own words prove He was not omniscienent. Jesus says in Mark 13:32 "But of that day, and that hour knoweth no man, no, not the angels which are in heaven, neither the Son, but the Father." (Compare with Matthew 24:36)

In these verses, Jesus said plainly that at that time, He did not know the exact timing of His second coming. But why would Christ say this if He truly was equal with His Father? An answer to this can be found in Philippians 2 verse 7, where it tells us that Jesus "made Himself of no reputation, and took upon him the form of a servant, and was made in the likeness of men". Christ intentionally and temporarily laid aside certain elements of His power when He took on human form (Hebrews 2:14-18). We can see this all throughout the Gospels, as Christ was constantly depending upon His Father for help.
(See John 5:19 & 30)
 
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preacher4truth

Active Member
Judith said:
The story has been totally confused. First off we know she was brought to trap the Lord not because the Pharisees were so righteous. In the end the Lord trapped them. The woman did not receive mercy from the Lord. READ THE TEXT! He told them to stone her! That was the law and that is all He could do. He says in another passage that He did not come to do away with the law so He had to tell them to obey the law and stone her. Yes he added to their own guilt by saying the one wihtout sin cast the first stone, but under the law there was no command to be without sin to carry out the punishment. They should have obeyed the law as given, but their guilty hearts condemned them. By not obeying the law they condemned themselves.
Next we see Jesus asking her were are your accusers? I am always amazed when I hear someone say that Jesus shows her mercy here. NOT SO! Jesus was under the law and the law required two witness' to condemn her and no one was left and so Jesus could not condemn her under the law without two witness and that is what He is saying. Neither do I condemn you go and sin no more. He could not condemn her without the witness and He could not say let her go when the witness were there.
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Your theology isn't. :thumbsup:
 
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