James,
bmerr here. This is from the "Questions About the 1000 years reign" thread on page two of the discussion topics.
To All,
bmerr here. Bear with me a minute, please. The text under consideration is tricky, to say the least, and it deserves our careful attention. For the record, I'd like to say that I do not have it "all figured out". However, I believe that many have been convinced of a doctrine that simply is not taught in Scripture. I intend no slight toward those who may be among this number, nor toward those who have taught this doctrine, having been convinced of it themselves.
With this in mind, and with the full assurance that God has given us a Book that we can understand, if we will, I'd like to notice a few things.
There are some things stated, and some things implied in Rev 20:4-15. Things stated include:
- a first resurrection (20:5)
- a second death (20:14)
Things implied include:
- a second resurrection
- a first death
Death is always a separation in the Bible. Either separation of the spirit from the body (James 2:26), separation of man from God due to personal sin (Eph 2:1; Col 2:13), or the final separation of man from God at the Judgement (Rev 20:14-15).
IMO, the implied first death is the separation of man from God due to personal sin. Here's why.
In John 5:25, Jesus said,
"Verily, verily, I say unto you, The hour is coming, and now is, when the dead shall hear the voice of the Son of God: and they that hear shall live."
Obviously, a dead body cannot hear anything, right? I don't believe this is a reference to the resurrection of the dead, because Jesus speaks about that later (5:28-29).
The walking dead (in sin) who heard the voice (words) of the Son of God, both Personally, and through His apostles, would live. Of course we all understand that to hear in this context is to hear and believe/obey.
Those who were restored to fellowship with God through their obedience to the gospel would undergo a likeness of Christ's resurrection as they emerged from the watery grave of baptism (Rom 6:3-5).
I think it reasonable to identify this as the stated first resurrection in Rev 20:4-5.
Jesus' words (John 5:28-29) concerning "all that are in the graves" (dead bodies) coming forth refer to the resurrection of the righteous and the unrighteous at His 2nd coming.
If this is the case, (and it may not be), it would break down like this:
- first death - separation from God due to personal sin
- first resurrection - returned to friendship with God through obedience to the gospel
- second resurrection - righteous and unrighteous at the 2nd coming
- second death - separation of the wicked from God to the lake of fire
The thousand years would be the NT age, of which we are a part, Christians being a royal priesthood (1 Pet 2:9), or "...priests of God and of Christ...reign[ing] with him a thousand years" (Rev 20:6).
Those are my thoughts on it. Your comments are welcome. I appreciate your consideration.
In Christ,
bmerr