webdog said:
1. Red Herring
2. Since faith in Christ is a turn from self to Christ for salvation...yup. That is what repentance means in greek, a change of mind (metanoia). Since one cannot have a "change of mind" apart from faith in Christ, it is one in the same.
3. Eph. 2:8-9, Acts 17:30-32. If you don't see repentance as part of faith in Acts 17, I don't know what else to tell you. Here, we have God judging the world based on whether they repented. Letting Scripture interpret Scripture, John 3:18 tells us exactly what man is judged on...did we believe, or did we not believe.
Act 17:30 "Therefore, having overlooked the times of ignorance, God now commands all people everywhere to repent,
Act 17:31 because He has set a day on which He is going to judge the world in righteousness by the Man He has appointed. He has provided proof of this to everyone by raising Him from the dead."
Joh 3:18Anyone who believes in Him is not judged, but anyone who does not believe is already judged, because he has not believed in the name of the One and Only Son of God.
New reply to the added material.
1. No, it's not a red herring. "Any argument in which the premisses are logically unrelated to the conclusion commits this fallacy." I was given a single text of Scripture in which the words were quoted by you "repent of sins" were not contained in that text of Scripture. My reply is neither is the word "Trinity" contained in the BIble, in ANY text of Scripture. Yet the doctrine is true. Just because the words "respent of sins" does not appear in the text of Scripture you chose, does not mean repentence is either uncessary to salvation or equal with faith.
2. You wrote, "Since faith in Christ is a turn from self to Christ for salvation...yup. That is what repentance means in greek, a change of mind (metanoia). Since one cannot have a "change of mind" apart from faith in Christ, it is one in the same." I already gave Boyce's treatment of the Greek on the matter. There is more than one Greek word used for repentence in the NT. Nor is the definition or etymology of a Greek word, or any word for that matter, sufficient for proper exegesis...espeically on matters this important. Here is your reasoning:
Prop A. One cannot change their mind without faith in Jesus.
Prop B. Therefore repentance and faith are the same thing.
This reasoning does not address or do justice to the text of Scriptures where they speak on repentance and where they speak on faith. Repentance, according to the text of Scripture, is not faith, and faith is not repentance. The Scripture separates the two, but they are certainly related to one another. This is basic, elementary Christian doctrine.
Hebrews 6:1 "Therefore leaving the principles of the doctrine of Christ, let us go on unto perfection; not laying again the foundation of repentance from dead works, and of faith toward God..."
Acts 20:21 "Testifying both to the Jews, and also to the Greeks, repentance toward God, and faith toward our Lord Jesus Christ."
3. You have offered as your linchpin Scripture Acts 17. In fact, you claim that if I cannot see your doctrine in this text, then there is nothing left to say to me. Your also attempting to use that noble and reformed hermenutic by seeking to interpret Scripture by the Scripture. But understand what that actually means:
"The infallible rule of interpretation of Scripture is the Scripture itself: and therefore, when there is a question about the true and full sense of any Scripture (which is not manifold, but one), it must be searched and known by other places that speak more clearly." WCF, Chapter I, Acticle IX.
Your claim is that God will be judging men on whether they repent or not. But is this what Acts 17 is saying? You quoted verse 31 yourself..
"Because he hath appointed a day, in the which
he will judge the world in righteousness by that man whom he hath ordained; whereof he hath given assurance unto all men, in that he hath raised him from the dead."
Romans 2:16 says, "In the day when God shall judge the secrets of men by Jesus Christ according to my gospel." So which is it? It is faith? Is it reptence? Is it Paul's Gospel? God will judge the world indeed. And I think Acts 17 tells me that God will judge the world by Jesus Christ. But that He does command all men to repent. Therefore your bringing John 3:18 into the interpreation is a mistake. I believe you have missed your subject.
God does command men, if they are to be saved, to repent. They are to turn from their wickedness and believe on the Lord Jesus Christ.
God will judge the world in righteousness. Man will be judge according to his works. The elect will not be in this judgment. But the discussion of eternal judgement is another subject. But I mention it as briefly as you did only to say that I believe your statement "ohn 3:18 tells us exactly what man is judged on...did we believe, or did we not believe" to be inconsistent with the testimony of Scripture. When I compare other passages of Scripture regarding condemnation and judgment, as well as justification, with John 3:18, I gain a better understanding of that verse.