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Losing one's salvation

R

Roguelet

Guest
Here was my responce to your other post

"Personally we have never heard someone say it meant going to Hell. forgive us for not being up on false doctrine.

Sorry but all your explainations are contradictory to everything you just said. You say you don't believe works keep us but that is EXACTLY what you are saying by saying those who do not abide in Christ get thrown into Hell. And all your other examples are all based on some kind of works.

You just contadicted yourself !"
 

ascund

New Member
Roguelet's John 10:28-29 passage is a clincher.

I bet you try your present tense redefinitions to twist the common sense meaning!

Lloyd
 

natters

New Member
Originally posted by ascund:
Roguelet's John 10:28-29 passage is a clincher.

I bet you try your present tense redefinitions to twist the common sense meaning!

Lloyd
Nope. See my previous comments on "pluck".
 

ascund

New Member
Hey natters

I just read your so-called proof. A simple denial is not a refutation. Can you use Bible to answer the question? I doubt it.

Lloyd
 

natters

New Member
Originally posted by ascund:
Hey natters

I just read your so-called proof. A simple denial is not a refutation. Can you use Bible to answer the question? I doubt it.

Lloyd
Which question? You guys are moving too fast for me to keep up.
 

natters

New Member
Originally posted by ascund:
Hey natters

your refutation of John 10.

Lloyd
You're confusing me, Lloyd. First, I don't understand what your comment means. Second, I would never refute John 10. I believe John 10.
 

ascund

New Member
Silly!

Your hold that John 10:28 means we can slip out of God's hand. That's not what the biblical Greek says.

The biblical Greek uses a double negation of the subjunctive and more! The Greek language is doing everything possible to make a categorical timeless denial that one can get out of Jesus’ hand. Not only can one never again perish, you can’t even think about it! How much clearer does it have to be!!

Lloyd
 

natters

New Member
Originally posted by ascund:
Your hold that John 10:28 means we can slip out of God's hand.
I most certainly do not. If you would read my past comments in this thread about it, it may help.
 

natters

New Member
I don't explain it "away". I've already addressed that passage 3 or 4 times. If you would read my past comments in this thread about it, it may help. ;)
 
R

Roguelet

Guest
I did it didn't make any sense, and yes you tried to explain it away.
 
R

Roguelet

Guest
I never said i didn't understand it. I said you made NO sense ! no matter how you try to explain away truth it comes out error.

We all understand it to mean exactly what it was intended to mean truth, so because of this it makes PERFECT SENSE to us.

ROMANS 8:38-39 is a cross bible verse that has the same principle can't explain this one away with a marriage example !
 

natters

New Member
Which part didn't make sense?

I've also discussed Romans 8:38-39. It says that nothing can separate us from his love, not him. If my son were to reject me and never see me again, I would still love him. God even loved us before we were saved, before we were his sons and daughters. His love does not equal our salvation.
 
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