37818
Well-Known Member
What is the evidence that Luke wrote that?why did Luke write “ἐκ σοῦ”, and Matthew ἐξ ἧς?
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What is the evidence that Luke wrote that?why did Luke write “ἐκ σοῦ”, and Matthew ἐξ ἧς?
I repeat the importance from the OP
“The doctrines of Valentinus are described fully by Irenæus (I. cap. i.) from whom S. Cyril takes this account. Valentinus, and Basilides, and Bardesanes, and Harmonious, and those of their company admit Christ’s conception and birth of the Virgin, but say that God the Word received no addition from the Virgin, but made a sort of passage through her, as through a tube, and made use of a phantom in appearing to men.” (Theodoret, Epist. 145.)
"To docetic thinkers the divinity of Christ presented no difficulties. It was the humanity (with its close relation to matter) that they could not acknowledge. It was only the channel by which He came into the world 'Jesus', they said, 'passed through Mary as water through a tube'. He was 'through' or 'by means of', but not 'of' Mary; that is to say, He derived from her no part of His being. 'For, just as water passes through a pipe, without receiving any addition from the pipe, so too the Word passed through Mary, but was not derived from Mary" (J F Bethune-Baker; Early History of Christian Doctrine, pp.80-81)
Rule 70and you continue to show your ignorance of textual studies. Got it!
sbg, you get stuck on a tree and miss the forest. The whole of scripture determines the understanding of Jesus humanity. You are stuck on a single greek usage and unable to see the forest. I do not find your stickler to be of any measurable significance and I see you building a mountain out of a mole hill. Look at the whole and let it guide your sticking point.why should anyone who believes that the Holy Bible is The Word of God, have any problem with Luke writing “ἐκ σοῦ”, and Matthew ἐξ ἧς, both Teach that Joseph is not the actual father of Jesus Christ, and that Mary the actual mother. How else can you account for Mary being the actual mother of Jesus?
sbg, you get stuck on a tree and miss the forest. The whole of scripture determines the understanding of Jesus humanity. You are stuck on a single greek usage and unable to see the forest. I do not find your stickler to be of any measurable significance and I see you building a mountain out of a mole hill. Look at the whole and let it guide your sticking point.
Genesis 3:15, ". . . her seed . . . ."
Matthew 1:16, ". . . Mary, of whom . . . ."
Galatians 4:4, ". . . made of a woman . . . ."
Textual criticism does not support the reading "of you" to Mary in Luke 1:35. The only modern translation to support that reading is the liberal Modern Language Version, and it is in italics because it is not in the Majority Text.
I put a little credence in so called extra Biblical church fathers.so all of the early Church Fathers, are wrong? such is the modern arrogance!
I didn't miss it, I just find it to be an irrelevant nitpick.you and the majority of those who have replied, have missed what the OP is about. It is on Luke 1:35, showing the corruption to the original reading, and the importance of the two missing words.
I didn't miss it, I just find it to be an irrelevant nitpick.
Does your nitpick change the nature of Jesus? Is Jesus somehow less than 100% human and 100% God due to this greek nitpick that only you seem to be worried about?"irrelevant nitpick", to state what the Bible Teaches, aginst those who try to pervert Bible Truths? Some of you guys here do make me wonder!
...and infusing their imaginations. We take the text as it is, and it doesn't allow for SBG's and Van's abberations.Until then its just unlearned men speculating... Brother Glen![]()