Luke 1:37

[psalms109:31]

Luke 1:37

New International Version (NIV 2011)

37 For no word from God will ever fail.”

Luke 1:37

New International Version 1984 (NIV1984)

37 For nothing is impossible with God.”

What do you think of this translation different?

 

[Oldtimer]

NIV negates the promise embedded within the KJV version.

BTW, for this reply I haven't read the context for the verse in question.

 

[psalms109:31]

NIV negates the promise embedded within the KJV version.

BTW, for this reply I haven't read the context for the verse in question.

Nothing will negate the promises of God embedded in truth.

Luke 1

New International Version (NIV 2011)

34 “How will this be,” Mary asked the angel, “since I am a virgin?”

35 The angel answered, “The Holy Spirit will come on you, and the power of the Most High will overshadow you. So the holy one to be born will be called the Son of God. 36 Even Elizabeth your relative is going to have a child in her old age, and she who was said to be unable to conceive is in her sixth month. 37 For no word from God will ever fail.”

38 “I am the Lord’s servant,” Mary answered. “May your word to me be fulfilled.” Then the angel left her.

KJV
Luke 1:
34Then said Mary unto the angel, How shall this be, seeing I know not a man?

35And the angel answered and said unto her, The Holy Ghost shall come upon thee, and the power of the Highest shall overshadow thee: therefore also that holy thing which shall be born of thee shall be called the Son of God.

36And, behold, thy cousin Elisabeth, she hath also conceived a son in her old age: and this is the sixth month with her, who was called barren.

37For with God nothing shall be impossible.

38And Mary said, Behold the handmaid of the Lord; be it unto me according to thy word. And the angel departed from her

 

[Oldtimer]

Opps! Thanks.
Knew I shoulda read the context.

 

[psalms109:31]

Opps! Thanks.
Knew I shoulda read the context.

Thank you, I should of put in context and used the KJV translation to, in the start of the O.P.

I just wanted to focus on verse 37

 

[Martin Marprelate]

Verse 37 is very difficult to translate literally.
It would be something like, 'Every word (or 'utterance.' Greek rhema) shall not be powerless with God.'

Verse 38 on the other hand is very straightforward. Behold the female slave of the Lord. Let it happen to me according to your saying.'

Steve

 

[rsr]

Verse 37 is very difficult to translate literally.
It would be something like, 'Every word (or 'utterance.' Greek rhema) shall not be powerless with God.'

This rendering is not without precedent; the RV/ASV have "For no word from God shall be void of power."

Interesting that it is similar to the Rheims NT (following the Vulgate and Wycliffe): "there shall not be impossible with God any word." (Which Challoner smoothed to "no word shall be impossible with God. )

So is the new NIV, in this instance, more literal than the traditional translations?

 

[psalms109:31]

Matthew 19:26

King James Version (KJV)

26But Jesus beheld them, and said unto them, With men this is impossible; but with God all things are possible.

Matthew 19:26

New International Version (NIV 2011)

26 Jesus looked at them and said, “With man this is impossible, but with God all things are possible.”

It seems similar to the translation with verses like this one without dealing with just His word, but what He will do. It is more along with faith in Him as Luke 1:37 has to do with faith in His word. If you have faith in God you should have it in His word where our faith comes from.

 

[Deacon]

No word of God shall be devoid of power.
Revised Version 1881

Hey, After all these years I'm finally begining to like the NIV - I've put it in my top 4 versions to check.

Rob

 

[rsr]

It seems similar to the translation with verses like this one without dealing with just His word, but what He will do. It is more along with faith in Him as Luke 1:37 has to do with faith in His word. If you have faith in God you should have it in His word where our faith comes from.

I'm sure that could be used as a justification for the traditional rendering.

Could you not make a better case for word, especially since rhema is repeated in Luke 1:38? It seems the traditionalist have missed a chance to emphasize the parallel construction by obscuring word in v. 37.

 

[psalms109:31]

I'm sure that could be used as a justification for the traditional rendering.

Could you not make a better case for word, especially since rhema is repeated in Luke 1:38? It seems the traditionalist have missed a chance to emphasize the parallel construction by obscuring word in v. 37.

I have read the KJV the 1984 NIV, NKJV and own a NASB with Greek and Hebrew dictionary with key word in my personal studying. I am now venturing in the NIV 2011 version. It is like the other versions that have brought more understanding of God and His word. The NIV 2011 is very bold to break away from the other traditional translation in places and brings me more understanding. I do believe "word" is a better rendering than the traditional. I am just showing why they may have rendered the way they did in the traditional translation.

I do agree that with verse 38 that "word" is the best rendering.

 

[franklinmonroe]

I. There is at least one variant pair under consideration in this verse. The difference in English is between "from God" (NA/UBS reading παρὰ τοῦ θεοῦ) and "with God" (TR reading παρὰ τῷ θεῷ).

II. The NLT has this note --

* Some manuscripts read For the word of God will never fail.​

III. You might be interested in this discussion --
http://www.baptistboard.com/showthread.php?t=21292