yes salvation is by grace alone, through faith alone, in Christ alone. But that does not mean that repentance is not required. Historically all of the major reformers have held that repentance was a requirement for salvation. Why? Because Paul and Jesus both did.
The Bible says salvation is by grace alone, through faith alone, in Christ alone, why do you add the but? There is not but in Ephesians 2:8-9.
Repentance that is spoken of in most places, especially in the Gospel is talking about a national repentance. It is a call for the entire nation of Israel to repent. So are you saying that everyone of the citzens of the US has to repent before we can be saved? Man we are in BIG trouble.
Again you are mixing messages and contexts. My encouragement to all of us is to leave the period where God placed the period. It's there for a reason.
However SCRIPTURE does state that works are one evidence that a person is saved...
Where is that Scripture?
We must go with Scripture and not try to make Scripture say what we want it to say.
This begs the question then why are you putting a "but" where God put a period?
By the way your I John quote doesn't say anything about works showing a person is eternally saved. Again the context of I John is not eternal salvation. John is speaking to saved people about something that is relevant to them at that point in time. He's not speaking about their past salvation.
We must go with Scripture and not try to make Scripture say what we want it to say. Right?
I happen to be of the view that the NASB's translation is correct on this point.
It's a subjunctive verb. There is only ONE way to read it. A subjunctive means it may or may not happen. There is no way you can get around that. You can either believe it or you can ignore it. Besides the word "would" is not a word that is a definite. It can't be because the Greek word is not a definite. If God wanted to give us the picture that works were a certainy then He could have done that with an indicative, not subjunctive.
We must go with Scripture and not try to make Scripture say what we want it to say. Right?
I John 3:7 Little children, make sure no one deceives you; the one who practices righteousness is righteous, just as He is righteous;
There is nothing in that verse that says all saved people will do good works.
I John 3:9-10 No one who is born of God practices sin, because His seed abides in him; and he cannot sin, because he is born of God. By this the children of God and the children of the devil are obvious: anyone who does not practice righteousness is not of God, nor the one who does not love his brother.
Again your point is not proven. Who are the ones born of God in this context? Well John tells us . . . Whosoever believeth that Jesus is the Christ is born of God:
Eternal salvation is believing on Jesus as The Substitute not believing on Him as the Christ. John is talking about faith in His being the Annointed Ruler that will one day ruler the earth. Again different contexts and it certainly doesn't prove that all saved people will do good works.
And even more proof that it doesn't prove your point is that "believeth" is a present tense verb. Eternal salvation is not a present tense thing. It's not a process, but a one-time event. Context. Context. Context.
I asked can a saved person practice sin.
Certainly saved individuals can. Why do you think we are warned against walking in the flesh if that is something that is impossible to do?
Who says they are not saved? Scripture doesn't say that. If it does please show me where that is.
In this verse Jesus is talking about heaven and the day of judgment.
Actually He is speaking of the kingdom of the heavens, not heaven. Those aren't the same thing. But you are correct in that He is speaking about the day of judgment.
In Matthew 7:21-23 when He says He does not "know" them He is talking about relationship.
There is nothing in that passage that speaks about relationship. He said He didn't know them in regard to their works. He didn't say anything about a relationship.
These people practiced lawlessness, they practiced sin
And your point is? Scripture doesn't say saved people can't practice sin. Actually we get quite the opposite picture both in the OT and NT.
I have shown why the text cannot be talking about believers
Really I must have missed that. Can you give it again. And can you show me how Satan can cast out Satan? These people we casting out demons. Jesus tells us that Satan can't cast out himself. So how can an unsaved person cast out a demon where there is no power of God, because that's the only way a demon can be cast out. Further evidence that these were saved individuals.
Obedience is one evidence that a person is saved (1Jn 2:3).
Okay here is the text:
By this we know that we have come to know Him, if we keep His commandments.
This doesn't say that obedience is one evidence a person is saved. This says by this (obedience) we (saved people) know that we (saved people) have come to know Him (not be eternally saved).
Again just let the text say what the text says.
By the way keeping the commandments is another one of those pesky subjunctive verbs. It means we may or may not keep His commandments. There is a real possibility that the "we" spoken of (saved people) won't keep His commandments. It doesn't make then unsaved, because that was already settled in their past.
There is no Biblical evidence that any believer will be deprived of the presence of Christ during the millennial Kingdom or at any other time.
Actually it is quite the contrary. There is plenty of Scripture both in the OT and NT that says exactly that.
