Major Doctrinal Differences

[Archangel7]

Originally posted by Anti-Alexandrian:

</font><blockquote>quote:</font><hr /> I'm still waiting for the KJV-Only advocates to explain why they don't condemn the "doctrinal deficiencies" in the KJV with the same righteous indignation as they do the "doctrinal deficiencies" in other versions.

Well,I could use the tired old crutch of "no doctrine is affected";but that answer is a dishonest hobby-horse cop out. </font>[/QUOTE]Then how do *you* explain the "obvious doctrinal deficiencies" in the examples from the KJV I posted earlier?

 

[Archangel7]

No takers? Is there no KJV-Only advocate out there who's prepared to explain why the "doctrinal deficiencies" previously pointed out in the KJV shouldn't be condemned just as stridently as the "doctrinal deficiencies" in other versions?

 

[Scott J]

Originally posted by Anti-Alexandrian:
Well,I could use the tired old crutch of "no doctrine is affected";but that answer is a dishonest hobby-horse cop out.

Prove it, or are you a false accuser?