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Good question.Another thread touched on the topic ‘when is it a marriage’ in the eyes of God (setting aside the laws of the land), so I thought we should discuss:
Are two unsaved people (a man and a woman) ‘married’ in the eyes of God? Why or why not?
The link ScarlettO provided is really good. It speaks of marriages that are flawed and fall short of God’s intention… they are still marriages, but flawed.It always struck me as interesting that the common marriage vow includes “what God has joined together, let no man separate” (from Mark 10:9). Which led to the question in my mind … when two people have a reprobate relationship with God and are ‘married’ by a notary with a document from the courthouse … did God really join them together?
The Samaritan woman at the well “had 5 husbands” … Did God join her to 5 husbands? Did God join together each of the marriages in a modern serial polygamy (marry - divorce - remarry - repeat)?
These questions cause me to wonder about who “God joins together”.
I liked it (once Piper got past the over long introduction about definitions and tennis courts).The link ScarlettO provided is really good. It speaks of marriages that are flawed and fall short of God’s intention… they are still marriages, but flawed.
peace to you
The marriage of a man/woman reflects the relationship between Christ and His church (the Bride of Christ)I liked it (once Piper got past the over long introduction about definitions and tennis courts).
I have some issues with the “marriage as an image of God” analogy applied to unsaved marriages as a justification for their “legitimacy” in the sight of God. I grew up on the receiving end of one of those and have too many fist-hand memories of people whose view of the relationship with God was irreparably warped by the “picture” painted for them by so-called marriages. I cannot easily swallow that part of Piper’s argument since “I” can see it as an argument against God recognizing such unions as “what God has joined together”. [Does God create unions that teach children that God is a monster?]
The other arguments from scripture presented by Piper seemed more compelling to me.
The marriage of a man/woman reflects the relationship between Christ and His church (the Bride of Christ)
Certainly, the intention of God is a permanent relationship. That truth is marred by sin, by our own natures, by the work of the devil and his demons.
That doesn’t mean the intended truth of God concerning marriage is flawed. It is important, especially for those who experienced those flawed relationships, for that truth to be articulated by His people.
peace to you
Yes, belief has nothing to do with it. If I remember correctly, Jacob took Rachel for his wife and she stole the household idols from her father (Laben?)I'll just throw this out to consider... What if a believer marries another believer but their beliefs are different?... Are they still married in the eyes of God?... Brother Glen![]()
If sex equals marriage, then there's no such thing as fornication or adultery.Good question.
I don’t think it has anything to do with “saved” or “unsaved”.
In OT times, it appears when a man and woman “knew” each other, becoming one flesh, they became man and wife.
Paul even tells us if you lay with a prostitute, you become “one flesh” with her, using the language for a man and his wife.
I don’t find anywhere in scripture where folks are commanded to get the blessing of a “Holy Man” before God considered them married.
So, biblically, I think you are “married” in the eyes of God, once you “know” a woman/man in a s@dual relationship.
peace to you
Marriage is a matter of natural, or common, law, so yes. If unbelievers can be guilty of adultery, then they can be married.Another thread touched on the topic ‘when is it a marriage’ in the eyes of God (setting aside the laws of the land), so I thought we should discuss:
Are two unsaved people (a man and a woman) ‘married’ in the eyes of God? Why or why not?
Yes, as God instituted marriage for the human race in general, so all legal marriages valid to Him!Another thread touched on the topic ‘when is it a marriage’ in the eyes of God (setting aside the laws of the land), so I thought we should discuss:
Are two unsaved people (a man and a woman) ‘married’ in the eyes of God? Why or why not?
Why do you find it necessary to yell?Yes, as God instituted marriage for the human race in general, so all legal marriages valid to Him!
[Does God create unions that teach children that God is a monster?]
I suppose the difference is intention. If a man (or woman) lay with a someone, but the intention was not to take that person as a spouse, you have fornication. Adultery, of course, is laying with another’s spouse (or someone not your spouse).If sex equals marriage, then there's no such thing as fornication or adultery.