Mat 19:8

[Judith]

He saith unto them, Moses because of the hardness of your hearts suffered you to put away your wives: but from the beginning it was not so.

So did Moses go against the will of God making something seem like it was of God and Jesus is setting it straight?

 

[JeremyV]

He saith unto them, Moses because of the hardness of your hearts suffered you to put away your wives: but from the beginning it was not so.

So did Moses go against the will of God making something seem like it was of God and Jesus is setting it straight?

I believe when the Pharisees and Jesus speaks of "Moses" here they are not referring to the man but to the laws that he delivered to Israel. These laws are often referred to as the "law of Moses":

"And he said unto them, These are the words which I spake unto you, while I was yet with you, that all things must be fulfilled, which were written in the law of Moses, and in the prophets, and in the psalms, concerning me." (Luke 24:44)

Sometimes this was shortened to "the law". I see no reason why it might not also be shortened to "Moses".

If this is what is happening, then Jesus is telling them that they law of Moses was not the full law. You might call it a lax version of the true. Consider Jesus proclamation on adultery:

"Ye have heard that it was said by them of old time, Thou shalt not commit adultery: But I say unto you, That whosoever looketh on a woman to lust after her hath committed adultery with her already in his heart."
(Matthew 5:27-28)

Here again we see the idea that that the law goes beyond the rules that Israel was given.

 

[Scarlett O.]

This conversation between Jesus and the Pharisee was an attempted trap just like all the other conversations they initiated with Him.

In context.....

Some Pharisees approached Him to test Him. They asked, “Is it lawful for a man to divorce his wife on any grounds?” “Haven’t you read,” He replied, “that He who created them in the beginning made them male and female,” and He also said: “For this reason a man will leave his father and mother and be joined to his wife, and the two will become one flesh? So they are no longer two, but one flesh. Therefore, what God has joined together, man must not separate.”


“Why then,” they asked Him, “did Moses command us to give divorce papers and to send her away?”


He told them, “Moses permitted you to divorce your wives because of the hardness of your hearts. But it was not like that from the beginning. And I tell you, whoever divorces his wife, except for sexual immorality, and marries another, commits adultery.”

They were lying when they said that Moses commanded divorce. Moses did permit divorce in Deuteronomy 24 when husbands "hated" their wives. He gave conditions by which a woman could not be put away by one man - married to another - put away by the second "because of hate" - and then the first man marry her again.

I think Moses was trying to control divorce. Apparently the religious leaders had been teaching that Moses commanded divorce when the husband was not happy.

Either way - I don't see Jesus as setting Moses straight, but setting the record straight and setting the Pharisees straight.

 

[Judith]

I see him setting the record straight for both the Jews and Moses.

 

[Van]

I think we see in the OT times where God manages or mitigates an existing situation, and now today, folks use those efforts to say God endorsed or embraced bad behavior.

I think our first question must be did Jesus embrace and endorse the Law of Moses concerning adultery and divorce, or did he present a higher law?

Next, I think we need to consider whether a law or command or permitted activity in OT times, but is not applicable today, indicates the law, command or permitted activity was somehow mistaken because it was not timeless.

I think to conclude the Law of Moses did not reflect the will of God for those times is without merit.

 

[Yeshua1]

He saith unto them, Moses because of the hardness of your hearts suffered you to put away your wives: but from the beginning it was not so.

So did Moses go against the will of God making something seem like it was of God and Jesus is setting it straight?

No, rather that the Lord "accomodated" the OT people to permit divorce, due to them being hard hearted and turning away from God, but now under the New covenant, Jesus has the real meaning/intent of marriage set back as God intended for it to be!

 

[Judith]

No, rather that the Lord "accomodated" the OT people to permit divorce, due to them being hard hearted and turning away from God, but now under the New covenant, Jesus has the real meaning/intent of marriage set back as God intended for it to be!

That is not what the Lord said.

 

[HankD]

That is not what the Lord said.

What did He say then Judith?

Just curious.

Thanks
HankD

 

[Revmitchell]

Moses gave room for divorce because the men of that time would grow tired of their wives, marry another and leave the first wife to fend for herself. Women of that time relied on their husbands to take care of them. If a man did not care for her then she would be left destitute and with no means of support.

Giving room for divorce allowed the woman to be able to remarry and not starve to death.

 

[HAMel]

Judith..., isn't divorce a terrible thing?

My wife and I have been married going on 49 years. We entered marriage with the understanding it was for life. Yeah, we've butted heads a few times but always, the hardness of our hearts melted away.

Hardness of hearts, as used in your original posting is really a slap in the face to those who demanded divorce.

I'm so thankful the Lord has kept us both sane regarding our marriage.

 

[Yeshua1]

That is not what the Lord said.

Jesys staed that God permitted it, due to the hardness of the hearts, but that he also provided for a way those divorced would still be able to provide for themselves, correct?

 

[Yeshua1]

This conversation between Jesus and the Pharisee was an attempted trap just like all the other conversations they initiated with Him.

In context.....



They were lying when they said that Moses commanded divorce. Moses did permit divorce in Deuteronomy 24 when husbands "hated" their wives. He gave conditions by which a woman could not be put away by one man - married to another - put away by the second "because of hate" - and then the first man marry her again.

I think Moses was trying to control divorce. Apparently the religious leaders had been teaching that Moses commanded divorce when the husband was not happy.

Either way - I don't see Jesus as setting Moses straight, but setting the record straight and setting the Pharisees straight.

Yes, as he was adressing their dispute about how easy/hard it is to divorce another, and Jesus answered that God intended for no divorce, but allowed it...

 

[Yeshua1]

That is not what the Lord said.

It was an example of the Will of God being intended for no divorce, but that he also hada permissive Will, due to them being so hard hearted!