BobRyan
Well-Known Member
In Matt 10:28 God says that HE is the one who destroys BOTH body and soul in fiery hell.
DHK and some others have pointed out that this destruction takes place as a result of the "everlasting fire" judgment that God speaks of in Matt 25:41 "prepared for the devil and his angels".
In Rev 20 we see that literally taking place in the literal lake of fire after the literal 1000 years. There is where we see God's eternal fire (fire and brimstone) "prepared and ready" to receive the devil and his angels since we are told that he is then and there cast alive in to the lake of fire.
But some argue that this kind of destruction of BOTH BODY AND SOUL - when done by "everlasting fire" (Matt 25:41) is more like the non-consuming fire of the burning bush experience of Mosas - where the literal plant is NOT destroyed NOT consumed but still seen to be on fire in some way.
However God says in Jude 7 and 2Peter 2:6-7 that "Everalsting fire" DOES destroy in a way that "reduces to ASHES". Neither MAtt 10:28 NOR Jude 7 says "will be seen to be on fire but no actually destroyed" as in the case of the burning bush that "was NOT consumed". (in fact NEVER does God use the burning bush as an example of the destruction by everlasting fire - no not even once!)
Taking God's Word over man-made tradition we might easily conclude that the body raised for that post-millennium destruction is not an "immortal body". (Indeed the ONLY ones said to get an immortal body in scripture are those in 1Cor 15 - the saints - at the first resurrection).
Since there is no text in all of scripture saying "you have an immortal soul" but rather Ezek 18:4 says "the soul that sins shall die" and Matt 10:28 says BOTH body AND SOUL are destroyed in fiery hell - we can easily see that the body that is destroyed in that fire - is destroyed along with the soul.
But admittedly some man-made traditions would not allow for that.
The challenge here is to suppose for a second that the bible really is true as it speaks to the points listed here - what benefit is there to accepting it as it reads in this case - and also what problems does that create?
Are they just problems for man-made traditions or are they in fact real Bible "problems" when taking these texts as literally true and paying attention to each inconvenient detail.
In Christ,
Bob
DHK and some others have pointed out that this destruction takes place as a result of the "everlasting fire" judgment that God speaks of in Matt 25:41 "prepared for the devil and his angels".
In Rev 20 we see that literally taking place in the literal lake of fire after the literal 1000 years. There is where we see God's eternal fire (fire and brimstone) "prepared and ready" to receive the devil and his angels since we are told that he is then and there cast alive in to the lake of fire.
But some argue that this kind of destruction of BOTH BODY AND SOUL - when done by "everlasting fire" (Matt 25:41) is more like the non-consuming fire of the burning bush experience of Mosas - where the literal plant is NOT destroyed NOT consumed but still seen to be on fire in some way.
However God says in Jude 7 and 2Peter 2:6-7 that "Everalsting fire" DOES destroy in a way that "reduces to ASHES". Neither MAtt 10:28 NOR Jude 7 says "will be seen to be on fire but no actually destroyed" as in the case of the burning bush that "was NOT consumed". (in fact NEVER does God use the burning bush as an example of the destruction by everlasting fire - no not even once!)
Taking God's Word over man-made tradition we might easily conclude that the body raised for that post-millennium destruction is not an "immortal body". (Indeed the ONLY ones said to get an immortal body in scripture are those in 1Cor 15 - the saints - at the first resurrection).
Since there is no text in all of scripture saying "you have an immortal soul" but rather Ezek 18:4 says "the soul that sins shall die" and Matt 10:28 says BOTH body AND SOUL are destroyed in fiery hell - we can easily see that the body that is destroyed in that fire - is destroyed along with the soul.
But admittedly some man-made traditions would not allow for that.
The challenge here is to suppose for a second that the bible really is true as it speaks to the points listed here - what benefit is there to accepting it as it reads in this case - and also what problems does that create?
Are they just problems for man-made traditions or are they in fact real Bible "problems" when taking these texts as literally true and paying attention to each inconvenient detail.
In Christ,
Bob
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