SNIP
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On and on you post falsehoods. Were no promises made to the Gentiles.? Of course promises were made!
Isaiah 42:8? Isaiah 49:6?
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SNIP
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Out of respect for this forum, I likely will not exchange much thought with you because unless I am reading you completely wrong, you are a King James Onlyist. I cannot think of any issue more divisive to the body of Christ. So did the King James translators in their Letter preface to the KJV. BTW, they were reformed believers.
http://www.pennuto.com/bible/pdfs/kjvtrans.pdf
God Speed
On and on you post falsehoods. Were no promises made to the Gentiles.? Of course promises were made!
Isaiah 42:8? Isaiah 49:6?
Sorry to inform you but I did not say there were not promises "about" the gentiles. I said there were no OT promises "to" the gentiles. There is a difference. If and when gentiles are blessed it will be "through" the seed of Abraham out of whom the savior came according to the flesh. He did not save gentiles before he saved Jews.
Jn 4:22 Ye worship ye know not what: we know what we worship: for salvation is of the Jews.
23 But the hour cometh, and now is, when the true worshippers shall worship the Father in spirit and in truth: for the Father seeketh such to worship him.
24 God is a Spirit: and they that worship him must worship him in spirit and in truth.
LOL, Jesus was sent to be a light to the Gentiles, and that is God's promise to the Gentiles. People who are unable or unwilling to admit error self limit growth toward maturity in Christ.
Yet another "taint so" post making God's word to no effect, rather than admitting error.You have not given this any thought. SNIP
Yet another "taint so" post making God's word to no effect, rather than admitting error.
Isaiah 49:6 KJV
And he said, It is a light thing that thou shouldest be my servant to raise up the tribes of Jacob, and to restore the preserved of Israel: I will also give thee for a light to the Gentiles, that thou mayest be my salvation unto the end of the earth.
To deny God promised to send a light for the Gentiles, or non-Jews to provide God's salvation to everyone is obdurate nonsense.
SNIP
Your problem is in your thinking. You have ordered your thinking to not believe the words. Therefore you cannot reason with logic.
Did anyone see where the promise to the Gentiles was made in the Old Testament?
Here it is again:
Isaiah 49:6 KJV
And he said, It is a light thing that thou shouldest be my servant to raise up the tribes of Jacob, and to restore the preserved of Israel: I will also give thee for a light to the Gentiles, that thou mayest be my salvation unto the end of the earth.
To deny God promised to send a light for the Gentiles, or non-Jews to provide God's salvation to everyone is obdurate nonsense.
Did the Gentiles know that God had promised them salvation? Nope. So they had no basis for hope.
Yet another post addressing me and not the topic.You are being dishonest again. Define "thou" and "thee" to understand to whom the promise was made. This is about the gentiles, not a promise to gentiles. It is about the extent of the influence of this servant to whom he speaks. None of the disciples of the servant when he came thought he had made a promise to save gentiles while they were with him and they no doubt read this verse more than you. In Matt 15 they tried to send a gentile woman away because she was a bother. Remember?
Yet another post addressing me and not the topic.
To deny salvation was promised to non-Jews, for non-Jews, in the Old Testament demonstrates denial of truth.
No argument from me.Let's just reason a little without the insults.
No argument from me.
Did God "save" some Gentiles (non-Jews) before AD 37? Yes
Did God state His plan to save some Gentiles (non-Jews) before AD 37? Yes
Jesus was not sent only to the Jews! That is biblical truth.
What gentiles were saved before 37 AD? Define what you mean by being saved.
Mathew 15:24
But he answered and said, I am not sent but unto the lost sheep of the house of Israel.
Interpretive translation
But he answered and said, I am not sent only among the lost sheep of the house of Israel.
This answer was in response to a request to send a Canaanite woman away. Jesus did not.
"El me" is translated as "but" or "but only" or "only."
"Eis" is translated as "into" or "to" or "among."
Rather than claiming the interpretive translation is adding to scripture, or changing the meaning of the words and phrases, why not reference where scripture presents a contrary statement, thus precluding the interpretation.
Did Jesus come into the world, humanity, Jews and Gentiles? Yes
Did Jesus send His disciples to Jews initially? Yes
Did this mean Christ's mission was not to be a light for the Gentiles? Nope
Isaiah 49:6 NET
he says, "Is it too insignificant a task for you to be my servant, to reestablish the tribes of Jacob, and restore the remnant of Israel? I will make you a light to the nations [Gentiles], so you can bring my deliverance to the remote regions of the earth."
Did God "save" some Gentiles (non-Jews) before AD 37? Yes
Did God state His plan to save some Gentiles (non-Jews) before AD 37? Yes
Jesus was not sent only to the Jews! That is biblical truth.
Jesus was not sent only among the Jews! That is biblical truth
SNIP
An example is your answer to my request that you define the meaning of salvation and you gave me a series of gentile women from the Old Testament, none of whom were saved as the Bible defines salvation from sin.
SNIP
The life then for all people in the world is the indwelling Spirit. This is the definition of salvation and it was not possible for anyone in the Old Testament times.
SNIP
You and I are not defining the salvation from sin in the same way. Those in the OT times were justified by believing what God said to them and their faith was imputed to them for righteousness by the Judge of all the earth but they were not cleared of their sins until the blood of Christ was applied to wash their sins away. Until then they were in Paradise in the center of the earth because they could not enter into the presence of God in that condition.
SNIP
Consider these words.