The word "in" nor the word "of" appear there. It's obvious you haven't looked it up.
straw man
True, but no one is doing that.
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matthew 22 Parable wedding Feast/many called few chosen!
- Thread starter DaChaser1
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Gal 2:16 absolutly says "faith OF Christ" and you have changed it to "IN". So, don't tell me no one is doing it.
What does the Greek say?
Why don't you tell me, Ann?
What's your proof of that? Do you have any evidence to prove your case?
I guess you didn't read anything I said now did you? The word "of" is not there. It doesn't show up anywhere in Galatians 2:16 in the Greek. I've given you proof that its "in Christ." Your proof is...well...nothing.
There you go! I love how people make issues of words that are not even there in the original language.
The word "in" is not there. Strong's number for the word "of" is 2424 lesous, Thayer's Lexicon page 300. 1. Joshua, captian "OF" the Israelites. 2. Jesus, son "OF" Eliezer. 3. Jesus, the Son "OF" God. I see a lot of the word "OF", however, I don't see any "IN's". If you want to claim the word "in" to fit your interpretation of Gal 2:16, so be it, but you have not shown me proof that "in" fits better than the word "of".
That's the word for Jesus. Ιησους Is Jesus, not "of" Obviously, you didn't look it up.
Strong
G2424
Ιησους
Iēsous
ee-ay-sooce'
Of Hebrew origin [H3091]; Jesus (that is, Jehoshua), the name of our Lord and two (three) other Israelites: - Jesus.
Thayer
G2424
Ἰησοῦς
Iēsous
Thayer Definition:
Jesus = “Jehovah is salvation”
1) Jesus, the Son of God, the Saviour of mankind, God incarnate
2) Jesus Barabbas was the captive robber whom the Jews begged Pilate to release instead of Christ
3) Joshua was the famous captain of the Israelites, Moses’ successor (Act_7:45, Heb_4:8)
4) Jesus, son of Eliezer, one of the ancestors of Christ (Luk_3:29)
5) Jesus, surnamed Justus, a Jewish Christian, an associate with Paul in the preaching of the gospel (Col_4:11)
Part of Speech: noun proper masculine
A Related Word by Thayer’s/Strong’s Number: of Hebrew origin H3091
Citing in TDNT: 3:284, 360
The word "of" is not there. I just quoted it to you. It's not there. you gave the word for Jesus. I gave you the Greek reason that the English translation of "in" is proper. You ignored it. You however have supplied, well, nothing. Except for claiming that Ιησους means "of" when the source you quoted says "Jesus."
The word "OF" in Gal 2:16 is a preposition as explained in the Webester's dictionary,as, derived or coming from. Faith is derived or coming from Christ, not from man.
You just repeated a post that said that you were wrong and the word was not "of" but instead "Jesus". But you continue to say that it is in the text? You can't build a doctrine on a word that doesn't exist.
Forest sounds like a hyper-KJVO who believes that the KJV is superior to & corrects the texts from which it was translated. If this is the case, then he has inoculated himself from ever seeing the truth that lies beyond his understanding.
The statement, "If God wanted Paul to be inspired to write "in Christ" he would have used the word "in", sounds like the ramblings of a first year seminary student that is struggling with Biblical interpretation because his methodology are based upon a false premise.
The statement, "If God wanted Paul to be inspired to write "in Christ" he would have used the word "in", sounds like the ramblings of a first year seminary student that is struggling with Biblical interpretation because his methodology are based upon a false premise.
Word for word, What does Gal 2:16 say in your bible?
Jesus said, "I thank you Father that you have hidden these things from the wise and prudent and revealed them unto babes".
We are not going by translations but instead the original language that God had the Bible written in.
Such juvenile arrogance. Taking Scripture out of context & misapplying it only serves to cast more light on your darkened understanding.
We know what the word "of" means. That's not the point. The point is that "of" is not correct in the passage.
The word "of" is not there. It's not there. There is no preposition "of" there.
πιστεως = "faith"
Ιησους = "Jesus"
Χριστός = "Christ"
πιστεως Ιησους χριστου
That's the Greek. There is no word "of" there.
In English, we have to supply words sometimes that are not required in Greek. That's what's going on here. So is this Subjective Genitive or Objective Genitive?
Just keep in mind Romans 3:26 "justifier of him which believeth in Jesus."
So no doctrinal pull can be made since the KJV says believes in Jesus as well.
ειδοτες οτι ου δικαιουται ανθρωπος εξ εργων νομου εαν μη δια πιστεως ιησου χριστου και ημεις εις χριστον ιησουν επιστευσαμεν ινα δικαιωθωμεν εκ πιστεως χριστου και ουκ εξ εργων νομου διοτι ου δικαιωθησεται εξ εργων νομου πασα σαρξ
You asked. BTW, do you see the words Jesus, faith, Christ or justified in this verse? Can you see the Gospel in this verse? If not, then which is in error; your perception or the Scripture?
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You will never convience me that man is the cause of his eternal justification, there are just too many scriptures that affirm that it is Christ that justifies man and not man justifing himself.Rom 5:9, being now justified by his blood. Rom 8:30, whom he called, them he also justified. Tit 3:7, that being justified by his grace.
