Matthew 25:31-46 Supports Amillenial View

[Pastor Larry]

There are plenty of pretrib baptists believe in two comings.

Actually, I think most of them believe in one second coming in two stages. Typically, the Rapture and the Return are considered as one second coming.

None.

Exactly, and yet we know that there are two comings: his first at the incarnation, and his second in return. Using your logic (and theologic), since the OT didn't tell us there were two comings, there can't be. Yet we know that there are. So you can see that your logic is faulty. To the OT writer and reader, the coming of the Messiah appeared as one coming. Yet to us, we know it is two.

To claim that Scripture never tells us that there will be two judgments, or different judgments, and therefore there can't be simply bad theology and bad methodology.

In Psalms 96:13 says, "Before the LORD: for he cometh, for he cometh to judge the earth: he shall judge the world with righteouss, and the people with his truth."

This verse tells us very clear there will be one future coming, and one future judgment day.

And which part of that verse says there is one future coming? I just see a reference to a coming in judgment. It doesn't say that there won't be a coming in victory or a coming in salvation or another judgment. Can't you see you are reading into the verse somethign that isn't there?

All of your references suffer from this same problem. None of them say only one coming day of judgment. None of them speak of any other kinds of comings.

Also, in Daniel 12:1-3 say:...This passage telling us very clear that there will be one future resurrection day, one judgment day.

No it doesn't. It doesn't say anything about one. It only says that there will be a day of judgment. It doesn't say what else might happen.

Also, this passage doesn't say anything of "one thousand years" nothing.

But Rev 20 does. So is Rev 20 wrong? Or might they both be right?

And in Daniel 7:9-10 say: ... This passage tells us very clear that, there will be one future judgment day.

Again, it doesn't say only one.

So clearly, your method of reading Scripture is to read every verse in light of your preconceived position. You may be right, but those verses don't prove it.

I never limit it to only four gospels.

Let me quote you from this very thread (and I could replicate this from other threads). You said: Please can you show us a CLEAR verse find anywhere in the four gospels that Christ did say anything that there will be two future comings? ... Can you show me a CLEAR verse find anywhere in the four gospels that Christ did say there will be two or three future judgment days?

Those are your words, not mine. You were limiting the proof you were willing to accept to the gospels.

]Recently in this post, I did show you many verses of O.T. on one future coming, and one future judgment.

And we saw that those verses do not say what you say they said.

Also, I never say that I deny the truth of the rest of Scripture? Why you seem accuse me that I deny the truth of all Scriptures?

Okay, let's ask a question. I will quote a Scripture and you tell me if you agree with it or not.

Jeremiah 31:38-40 Behold, days are coming," declares the LORD, "when the city will be rebuilt for the LORD from the Tower of Hananel to the Corner Gate. 39 "The measuring line will go out farther straight ahead to the hill Gareb; then it will turn to Goah. 40 "And the whole valley of the dead bodies and of the ashes, and all the fields as far as the brook Kidron, to the corner of the Horse Gate toward the east, shall be holy to the LORD; it will not be plucked up or overthrown anymore forever."

Do you agree?

 

[DeafPosttrib]

Larry,

I do not have time to reply all, because soon I have to work tonight.

By the way,

Jer. 31:38-40 was written before Jerusalem was taken into capitvity under Babylon. Jeremiah the prophet predicted that Jerusalem will be rebuilt that was fulfilled in Ezra and Nehemiah time during in the Old Testament time. Ezra came with his people to Jeruslame, to rebuilt temple. Later, Nehemiah came with his people to rebuilt walls round around Jerusalem.

Therefore, Jer. 31:38-40 & Dan. 9:24-26 both were already fulfilled in the latter years of Old Testment period.

Also, Jer. 31:31 speaks of new covenant with house of Israel and house of Judah, was of course speaking to Jews. This was already fulfilled by Calvary that Christ made new covenant and their sins were forgiven by through his blood on the cross.

Tomorrow, I will discuss more with you.

In Christ
Rev. 22:20 -Amen!

 

[Pastor Larry]

Jer. 31:38-40 was written before Jerusalem was taken into capitvity under Babylon.

Probably written after Jerusalem was taken into captivity. Jer 30-33 is The Book of Comfort, and it references the grief of mothers seeing theirs sons taken into captivity. It was however written prior to the release from captivity, and so your point (as of now) stands. But there's more.

Jeremiah the prophet predicted that Jerusalem will be rebuilt that was fulfilled in Ezra and Nehemiah time during in the Old Testament time. Ezra came with his people to Jeruslame, to rebuilt temple. Later, Nehemiah came with his people to rebuilt walls round around Jerusalem.

Two problems.

1) The land of post-exilic Israel was considerably smaller than what was promised to them, so if that is the fulfillment, then it is only a partial fulfillment.
2) The NC promises that the rebuilt city will "not be plucked up or overthrown anymore forever." Yet we can clearly see that hasn't happened. So if Jer 31:38-40 is true, there must be a future rebuilding of the city after which it will never be plucked up and overthrown. This promise is repeated multiple times throughout the prophets, including the post-exilic prophets.

You also reference Daniel 9:24-26 which creates even more problems for you. Let's have a quick look:

Daniel 9:24 "Seventy weeks have been decreed for your people and your holy city, to finish the transgression, to make an end of sin, to make atonement for iniquity, to bring in everlasting righteousness, to seal up vision and prophecy and to anoint the most holy place. 25 "So you are to know and discern that from the issuing of a decree to restore and rebuild Jerusalem until Messiah the Prince there will be seven weeks and sixty-two weeks; it will be built again, with plaza and moat, even in times of distress. 26 "Then after the sixty-two weeks the Messiah will be cut off and have nothing, and the people of the prince who is to come will destroy the city and the sanctuary. And its end will come with a flood; even to the end there will be war; desolations are determined.

Everlasting righteouness? That is not the current state. Transgression has not been finished. Therefore, Dan 9:24 has not been fulfilled. (Of course you have to answer the question of what is the transgression.)

But here's the bigger problem for you. Jer 31 says that the city will be rebuilt and never overthrown. Yet Dan 9:26 says that the city will be destroyed (and I presume you would agree that is being "overthrown"). So, if you say that Nebuchadnezzar was the overthrowing of the city and the post-exilic was the rebuilding of it according to the NC, then when is Daniel 9:26 fulfilled? If Jer 31:40 is right, then Jerusalem can never been destroyed again. Yet it has been in A.D. 70. So you can't be right. The rebuilding of Jer 31:38-40 is a rebuilding that will never be destroyed.

Also, Jer. 31:31 speaks of new covenant with house of Israel and house of Judah, was of course speaking to Jews. This was already fulfilled by Calvary that Christ made new covenant and their sins were forgiven by through his blood on the cross.

So Israel was forgiven? Why aren't they living for their Messiah? Why does Paul, in Romans 11:26, promise a restoration of ethnic Israel when they repent? Your position here cannot make sense of the text. You are forced to ignore some things.

 

[Pastor Larry]

Tomorrow, I will discuss more with you.

I think I am about to bow out here. I wasn't even going to comment today, but I got sucked into it. This is taking way too much time, and I doubt that anyone here will be convinced otherwise. I would love to have more discussions about Scripture itself, but these simplistic one-line citations don't accomplish much.

This millennial stuff is, to me, so unbelievably clear I can't see how anyone can be an amillennialist. The Scriptures are too explicit. My only guess is that people have never read the prophets much.

 

[TomVols]

Actually, I think most of them believe in one second coming in two stages. Typically, the Rapture and the Return are considered as one second coming.

Don't know I've heard anyone say this. Maybe...but not in those terms.

This millennial stuff is, to me, so unbelievably clear I can't see how anyone can be an amillennialist. The Scriptures are too explicit. My only guess is that people have never read the prophets much.

You're 2/3 right. The Bible is indeed very clear. I don't see how anyone who has read one verse of Scripture can be dispie or premil. Can't see for the life of me how anyone who interprets the Bible literally/faithfully can hold to these views. All dispies are guilty of eisegesis and assuming facts not in evidence. Their unScriptural presuppositions could fill a hockey arena - twice.

At any rate, I normally don't get into these discussions either because they are not fruitful. Don't know why I got into this one. I guess I've gotten into my one for the year :laugh:

 

[pinoybaptist]

<snip>
I don't fine 1 Thess 4 a particularly strong Rapture passage, though I think 1 Thess 5 is virtually unassailable.

Uh, I went and looked up 1 Thess 5.

What makes 1 Thess 5 unassailable in support of the Rapture teaching, but not of the no rapture one ?
Whether or not a rapture with all its sub-doctrines will occur or not the fact remains no one of either side (except maybe Harold Camping:laugh: ) knows the day of the Lord's coming, and the fact remains that Jesus told His people in all colors of the theological spectrum to occupy till He comes.

 

[Ed Edwards]

from:

http://www.baptistboard.com/showthread.php?p=1331883

TomVols: // I don't see how anyone who has read one verse of Scripture can be dispie or premil. Can't see for the life of me how anyone who interprets the Bible literally/faithfully can hold to these views. All dispies are guilty of eisegesis and assuming facts not in evidence. Their unScriptural presuppositions could fill a hockey arena - twice. //

Thank you for pointing this out. I find the a-mills (both main brands) tend NOT to know that they also use presuppositions which are unScriptural, perform illogic upon them, then call it the CLEAR WORD OF GOD. And then the two groups of a-mills come up with two totally different conclusions.

First of all, I'd like to say I'd rather discuss these matter in this place:

http://www.baptistboard.com/showthread.php?t=54854&page=4

so I will ...

 

[OldRegular]

The Bible is indeed very clear. I don't see how anyone who has read one verse of Scripture can be dispie or premil. Can't see for the life of me how anyone who interprets the Bible literally/faithfully can hold to these views. All dispies are guilty of eisegesis and assuming facts not in evidence. Their unScriptural presuppositions could fill a hockey arena - twice.

:thumbs: :thumbs: :thumbs:

 

[DeafPosttrib]

Larry,

I'm back.

Actually, I think most of them believe in one second in two stages. Typically, the Rapture and the Return are considered as one second coming

Early Church never teaching two stages of future coming. It was not yet exist doctrine for many centuries. They believed one future coming, because they took apostles and Christ's teachings, and they sticky with it and God's Word with simple and plain teaching of second advent.

The two stages of second advent was developed in late 19th Century since John Darby invented pretribulationism doctrine, and invented of distiction Israel and Church.

During 18th Century, Churches in America, were not teaching on two stages of second advent. They believed in one future advent. There were many Baptists in America during 18th Century, were posttribs, I would say there were over 95% of Baptists in America believed in one future coming during 18th Century.

Pretribulationism doctrine was not yet introduction to America till mid of 19th Century, thanked to John Darby's visitations. Darby was aggressive try to spread his teaching of pretrib rapture to churches in America, and also in Canada. During that period, almost all churches were not teaching pretribulationism till Darby came to America. Then, more churches started to adopted Darby's new teaching on pretrib.

Then, in 1875, several pastors and evangelists were gathering together as private meeting discuss about plan to launch conference. Then three years later, Nigara Conference launched conference. Many pastors and evangelists were attend there. They adopted pretribulationism. After that, pretribulationism doctrine was born in America. But, it was still small numbered of churches believe in pretribs.

Till at turn of 20th Century, C.I. Scofield aggressived on dispensationalism and pretribulationism spreaded over churches and Christian colleges. Then.

in 1920, pretribulationism doctrine was added unto the Statement of Faith in Christian colleges. After that, Pretribulationism become populare during 1920's to today.

Larry, I ask you a simple question. Can you show me a clear verse in Pauline epistles say that rapture will be seven years occur earlier prior second coming?

Exactly, and yet we know that there are two comings: his first at the incarnation, and his second in return. Using your logic(and theologic), since the OT didn't tell us there were two comings, there can't be. Yet we know that there are. So you can see that logic is faulty. To the OT writer and reader, the coming of the Messiah appeared as one coming. Yet to us, we know it is two.

I remembered, I saw chart of Clarence Larkin's in 'Dispensational Truth' book years ago. He drew a picture of two great hills, that OT prophets did actual saw, but OT prophets cannot see "Church" in the middle of two hills, because it is hide down in valley between two hills. Dispensationalists saying that 'Church' was "mystery" to the Ot prophets and saints. So, therefore, they have good reason that there is distinction of Israel and Church in God's program. Otherwise, as in your words that the OT prophets didn't see rapture in their visions. I understand your point that OT prophets didn't see two comings of Messiah as birth and his advent. Therefore, you argue with me that, you believe there are two stages of "second advent" is same common sense as OT prophets cannot see two comings either.

I do have a good point for you. Do the OT prophets actual see THREE future comings???- 1. Christ's birth 2. Rapture 3. Advent.

That is why, pretribulationism is flaw and lack of proofs from Scriptures.

Both Christ and Paul never actual say that saints' gathering together would be occur seven years earlier prior His "Coming" in the four gospels and Pauline epistles. Yet, both told us very clear that our gathering together will be AT "coming" same time, therefore, rapture will be occur AT second advent same time.

I did show you of OT verses which citied one future coming and one future judgment day. Yet you say, you do not actual see them. What's matter with your eyes. Do you need a bigger glasses?

Paul did taught that, there will be one future judgment day follow at Christ's coming same time in

Acts 17:31 "Because he hath appointed a day, in the which he will judge the world in righteousness by that man whom he hath ordained; whereof he hath given assurance unto all men, in that he hath raised him from the dead."

This verse tells us clear that there will be one judgment day.

Also, in 2 Timothy 4:1 "I charge thee therefore before God, and the Lord Jesus Christ, who shall judge the quick and the dead AT his APPEARING and his kingdom."

This verse tells us very clear, that Christ will judge both quick and dead follow AT his 'appearing' same time, not seven years apart between so called, "rapture" and second advent.

'Quick' represents saved people, 'dead' represents unsaved people. plain and simple.

This post is long. I better another post to continue discuss in the next post.

To be continue.

In Christ
Rev. 22:20 -Amen!

 

[DeafPosttrib]

Larry,

But Rev 20 does, so is Rev 20 wrong? Or might they both be right?

Notice Rev. 20:2,3,4,5,6, and 7 didn't say, "for one thousand years".

These saying, "for a thousand years" & "for the thousand years".

Word, 'thousand' of Rev. 20:2-7 in Greek #5507 means plural or uncertain. So, therefore, 'a thousand years' & 'the thousand years' in Greek telling us, the numbering of 'a thousand years' & 'the thousand years' either are not exactly or specific how many years of length period, and it could be last for several of thousands of years like, 2000 or 3000 years.

Rev. 20:2-7 of 'a thousand years' & 'the thousand years' is symbolic of temporary length period that the gospel era is currently spreading over the world since Christ gave the "keys"(power) to Church of Matt. 16:18-19. Church have been carry gospel over the world for almost 2000 years. That why it is as 'realized millennial' we are in right now.

I want to show you examples of 'thousand' with verses in Bible.

Psalms 50:10 "For every beast of the forest is mine, and the cattle upon a thousand hills."

Isn't God own 1001 hills?

Look next verse - Psa. 50:11 says, "I know ALL the fowls of the mountians, and the wild beasts of the field ARE MINE."

Psa. 50:10-11 show the point that God owns everything over the world, because He created them.

'A thousand hills' of Psa. 50:10 shows that God owns multitude of hills over the world, in other words, he owns all hills. There are several of thousands of hills over the wolrd, that we cannot be certian how many specific number of hills all over world. So, we know that there are MANY hills all over world, could be about over 10,000 hills. Only God knows how many hills over the world, because He owns them.

Also, in Ecclesiastes 6:6 says, "Yea, though he live a thousand years twice told, yet hath he seen no good: do not all go to one place?"

Solomon didn't saying that a person did actual live up to a thousand years, in other word, neither Solomon says, a man did actual live up to one thousand years either. His point point was, our life is being worthless, our earthly things are worthless and vain. Everything all are temporary, all will be pass away or fade away.

Also, in Deut. 7:9 says, "Know therefore that the LORD thy God, he is God, the faithful God, which keepth covenant and mercy with that love him and keep his commandments toa thousand generations."

Is "a thousand generations", literal?

No. it is a figurative. This verse tells us, God always keep his promise with many generations, it means that, God never fail his promise with all his children from Abraham to the very last saint at Christ's coming. His promise of Genesis 17:5-7 is an everlasting covenant with many generations since from Abraham(not only Abraham, also, include from Adam to Noah) to the very last saint at Christ's coming. His promise which speak of salvation in Christ by calvary.

"a thousand generations" represent of mutlitude generations, anyone who have faith in Christ, His covenant never fail us for thousands of years since Abraham, His promise always with us throughout generations for about 4,000 years past already since God made covenant with Abraham tp present time.

See? That what the point of Deut. 7:9 talks about.

Now back to Revelation 20:2-7, do these are literal? No, use in our common sense, this is figurative meaning of symbol meaning. This passage tells us, Church have have been reigning with Christ both in heaven and earth since Christ had given the "keys"(power & His authority) to them to spread the gospel over the world after Satan was defeated at Calvary and Christ's resurrection for almost 2000 years now already. "A thousand years" & "the thousand years" represent of temporary length period, it could be last two or three thousand years.

Remind that Rev, 20:2-7 didn't saying, "ONE thousand years". Rev. 20:2-7 say, "a thousand years" & "the thousand years". If suppose, this passage in the Bible actual say, "one thousand years", then it easy mean literal specific numbered of length years of period.

That why, in KJV of Rev. 20:2-7 say, "for A thousand years" & "for THE thousand years", clearly it is plural fact in Greek #5507 says it.

Therefore, Rev. 20:1-7 pictured of the scene speaking of Christ's victory over Satan at Calvary and his resurrection, that He brought the "Keys"(power & authority) to Church, that they spreading the gospel over the world that satan cannot stop them for almost 2000 years now.

Understand clear?

In the next post, I will reply to you on 1 Thess 4 & 1 Thess 5 as what you said in your post recent.

In Christ
Rev. 22:20 -Amen!

 

[DeafPosttrib]

Larry,

1 Thess 4 a particularly strong Rapture passage, though I think 1 Thess 5 is virtually unassailable

Word, 'Rapture' does not appear in 1 Thess. 4:13-18.

The true definition word of 'rapture' in English means, highly feeling with emotions, or stronly transformed(change).

Word, 'rapture' never support the idea meaning of Church's gathering only. Also, 'rapture' have do nothing with 1 Thess. 4:13-18.

'Caught up' of 1 Thess. 4:17 speaks of supernatural power of taken.

Also, 1 Thess. 4:13-18 clearly telling us that our gathering & caught up will be AT his "coming" same time, neither this passage say our gathering & caught up will be occur seven years earlier prior his "coming". Therefore, pretribulationism's proof verse of 1 Thess. 4:13-18 is fallacy.

Also, 1 Thess 5 say nothing of "Rapture". Remember that Pauline epistles were written with No chapter and verse. These were like as letter. Chapters and verses were added unto God's Word about 300 or 400 years later after John wrote Revelation.

That why, pretribs easily argue with us by use chapters show that there are different time or topic.

Yet, both 1 Thessalonians chapter 4 and 5 are continue discuss in the same topic is all about second coming.

1 Thess 5 talks about be prepare and be ready for his coming. Because his coming would be like as "thief in the night", which speaking of catch people with unaware and unprepare will be end up face punishment judgment cast into everlasting fire at His coming.


If suppose we do not stay in the light and remain in dark by the time Christ arrives, we would be end up as "thief in the night" means that we would be caught as goat and cast us away into everlasting fire at His coming, IF we do not watch and ready at His coming. "Thief in the night" in common sense of when Christ shall come, all angels will come down in the air, to taken people up in the air as supernatural force without expecting, will cast them away into everlasting destruction as describe in Matt. 24:38-42; & Luke 17:34-37.

In the next post, I will continue discuss with another point of questions.

To be continued.

In Christ
Rev. 22:20 -Amen!

 

[DeafPosttrib]

Premills believe when, people who will miss rapture, and they will be saved during seven year of Tribulation Period. Whilst, some who will be saved and shall be survived throughout seven years of Tribulation period by the time Christ arrives. They will be remain in their mortal bodies, and will enter into Millennial kingdom, and will repopulate the world again by begat more children born in the Millennial kingdom.

I ask you question, where can you find a verse anywhere in the New Testament say that, a goat will be survive into millennial kingdom with mortal body beyond Christ's "coming"?

Matthew 25:31-46 telling us clear, when once Christ comes, all goats will be all settled up separated apart from sheep on left side. What will be happen to all goats beyond Christ's "coming"? All goats will be sudden cast away into "everlasting fire"/"everlasting punishment"- Matt. 24:41 & 46. Simple mean, when once Christ comes, there will be no chance or room for goats to be survive to enter the kingdom(Matt. 25:34), all goats will be end up caught by angels, cast them away into everlasting fire-lake of fire. That's it.

1 Cor. 15:50 tells us that, flesh and blood cannot into the kingdom, that means, their sins and corruptible cannot into holy and perfect eternality kingdom beyond Christ's "coming".

The point is, God is holy and perfect, have no sin. God refuses tough sin. And New Jerusalem is holy and perfect, which God dwells in it. It have no sin and corrupt. Also, God's heaven(third heaven) is a very holy place and perfect. God does NOT allow a single sin touch in God's holy place.

The reason is, when Christ comes again, God will create new earth, SO, He will send New Jersualem descend down from third heaven, put it on new earth. Because, new earth will be perfect and glory without corrupt. New earth & New Jerusalem both are picture of God's "kingdom". God's kingdom is an everlasting perfect and holy state.

God cannot allow a single person who still have FLESH and BLOOD(sins within them) to touch a piece part of new earth and New Jerusalem, because they are holy. Therefore, God must elimate or destroy all flesh and blood(sins & corrupt) away FIRST BEFORE God will create new earth and put New Jerusalem on new earth, so, therefore God will allow all Incourriptible people to dwell in them WITH God.

That means, all unsaved people will be all elimate away from God's kingdom by cast them all away into everlasting fire at Christ's coming.

1 Cor. 15:51-54 telling us when at Christ's coming, we as Christians all shall be change into incorruptible and immortality that mean, our body, soul both will be all change into glory new body be like Christ's at His coming. SO, all Christians will have perfect glory new body without corrupt and sin, God can allow them to inherit His kingdom on new earth and in New Jerusalem WITH God, because He is HOLY.

See? My point.

In 2 Thess. 1:7-10 telling us clear:

"And to you who are troubled rest with us, WHEN the Lord Jesus shall be REVEALED from heaven with his mighty angels, In flaming fire taking vengeance on them that know not God, and that obey not the gospel of our Lord Jesus Christ: Who shall be punished with EVERLASTING destructiopn from the presence of the Lord, and from the glory of his power. WHEN HE SHALL COME to be glorified in his saints, and to be admired in all them that believe(because our testimony among you was believed) IN THAT DAY."

This passage telling us, when Christ shall come with his angels, all unbelievers will be cast away into everlasting punishment from the presence of the Lord and his angels(refers with Rev. 14:9-11). There will be no chance for unbelievers to be remain survive AFTER Christ's 'coming', all their bodies will be cast away into everlasting fire at once on the judgment day follow at Christ's 'coming' same time.

There is no promise for a unbeliever will have another second chance to be saved once when AFTER Christ comes. It will be too late for them who will be end up as "thief" at His coming away them away into everlasting fire.

Therefore, premillennialism doctrine is fallacy and have no proof in the Bible say that, any unbeliever will have another second chance to be saved when AFTER Christ comes at once, it will be done and too late for them.

In Christ
Rev. 22:20 -Amen!

 

[Ed Edwards]

DeafPosttrib: // Premills believe when, people who will miss rapture, and they will be saved during seven year of Tribulation Period. //

Your whole argument in post #32 goes amiss cause you started with an incorrect statement, the one above. Here is a correct statement similar to yours but which is correct:

some Premills believe when, people who will miss rapture, and they will be saved during seven year of Tribulation Period.

Well you demolished that strawman you created. What happens if you have to fight with a real person &/or demon?

Some pretribs ('pretribs' is a subset of 'premills') believe that there will be a second chance. But I don't think very many will take the second chance. And Millionaire authors like Tim LaHaye who make millions by having the second chance people make the Antichrist look the fool -- it isn't going to happen.

The Tribulation Period is a judgement period against the unbelieving Gentiles (the believing Gentiles and their Messanic Jews will be GONE) and a salvation time for National Yisrael (individually, like all salvation). If a gentile believes in Messiah Jesus - I think there first testimony of Lordship will be when their head is taken off. So I hope no gentile plans to get saved in the Tribulation Period - it might not happen at all. If one cannot accept Christ in the good years, how can they do it in the lean years?

 

[Ed Edwards]

Post #30 above will be answered at the 3 Kingdoms topic at:

http://www.baptistboard.com/showthread.php?t=54854&page=5

(board rules do NOT allow posting the same post two different places).

 

[OldRegular]

If one cannot accept Christ in the good years, how can they do it in the lean years?

Why doesn't this apply to the Jews also?