I am honestly not trying to get into an argument with you and I think I owe you appologies for past flames.Originally posted by Thomas Cassidy:
The NIV is a marginal translation of a poor underlying text.
The use of dynamic equivalence when not necessary for understanding tends, in my opinion, to deminish the authority of scripture and blur the doctrine of verbal inspiration.
The underlying Greek textform is demonstrably inferior to the Byzantine textform, and introduces some errors of fact into the readings of the NIV deminishing the authority of the NIV in the areas of inerrancy and infallibility.
Of the major English versions based on the same underlying text I would rate it dead last. The ASV, NASB, ESB, NRSV, etc. are all superior to the NIV.
Can you tell me why you feel the Byzantine text form us better than earlier text forms regardless of where they came from? (location wise) Do you have some material that I could read and research or some good information that is posted on the web concerning this issue?
I know you have always stood behind the Byzantine text form, but I am not exactly sure of your reasoning. Also, at one time (I think) you made a remark about some of the problems with the NKJV as related to grammatical misinterpretation (seems like it was in Paul's letters)---what is your feelings about the NKJV in general and does it truly use the original text forms used by the KJV? I agree with you on the NIV being one of the weakest translations and have used the NASB as a backup to help me understand my KJV, but if the KJV textforms are more accurate, why does somebody not take them and make a modern translation from them (besides, of course, the NKJV)? Just curious......If you could point me to some study material I would appreciate it.
Thanks
[ October 04, 2002, 05:10 PM: Message edited by: Phillip ]