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Dale-c said:For all of the discussion of texts, is there a doctrine that someone can find in one version that is absent in another?
Dale-c said:For all of the discussion of texts, is there a doctrine that someone can find in one version that is absent in another?
It is most certainly an attack on the KJV. I do appreciate you coming straight out and saying it though. Most who hold to your opinion won't say it quite as clear. Call it what you will; it is a lack of confidence in the KJV.Dale-c said:I do think that the [l]onger people use the KJV and take archaic words for granted there will be misunderstanding.
This is[n't] a knock at all on the KJV...
It is most certainly an attack on the KJV
Is there any chance we could stay on topic in this thread folks?
1Th 5:22 Abstain from all appearance of evil.
22abstain from every [a]form of evil.
I do not know of one single author who asserts that any major doctrines are absent from any version or text. When verses and words are omitted that would strengthen or add additional support to a doctrine, then it can rightly be said that a doctrine has been diluted or weakened.Dale-c said:...is there a doctrine that someone can find in one version that is absent in another?
Pastor_Bob said:I do not know of one single author who asserts that any major doctrines are absent from any version or text. When verses and words are omitted that would strengthen or add additional support to a doctrine, then it can rightly be said that a doctrine has been diluted or weakened.
I think this is far less likely than an omission by a scribe who doesn't hold to a particular doctrine. It was being done is Paul's day (2 Cor. 2:17), and not a stretch to believe that it has happened continually since. Both by verbal corruption and by textual criticism corruption. Is that not how the enemy would work? Why can we not admit the interference of Satan in this whole process?C4K said:Or, perhaps, artificially strengthened by a scribal addition which made its way into the text.
Pastor_Bob said:I think this is far less likely than an omission by a scribe who doesn't hold to a particular doctrine. It was being done is Paul's day (2 Cor. 2:17), and not a stretch to believe that it has happened continually since. Both by verbal corruption and by textual criticism corruption. Is that not how the enemy would work? Why can we not admit the interference of Satan in this whole process?
Pastor_Bob said:I think this is far less likely than an omission by a scribe who doesn't hold to a particular doctrine. It was being done is Paul's day (2 Cor. 2:17), and not a stretch to believe that it has happened continually since. Both by verbal corruption and by textual criticism corruption. Is that not how the enemy would work? Why can we not admit the interference of Satan in this whole process?
We can, except that the doctrine of preservation demands that God's words are available to us in this generation.C4K said:We can, but can we not admit that it may go both ways?
I will concede that this is likely.I think it likely, with Stephen, that an explanatory note, written as a word of clarification, could easily make its way into the next copyist's manuscript.
I have based my opinion on the text that has been used throughout Christendom and that has been quoted by Bible-believing preachers since the first century. To accept a here-to-fore hidden text that is largely based on two mss that suddenly appeared in the 19th century is too much of a stretch for me personally.How can we decide which texts have been influenced by Satan?
That is where faith, common sense, and considering all the facts come into play.My strong preference for the traditional textual body is well known here, but I really don't know.
The link with apostasy that is present with the Alexandrian text is enough for me to take a hard look at the Received Text.And still, there are no doctrines portrayed in the TR body that are not portrayed in the CT, or vice versa.
Pastor_Bob said:I have based my opinion on the text that has been used throughout Christendom and that has been quoted by Bible-believing preachers since the first century. To accept a here-to-fore hidden text that is largely based on two mss that suddenly appeared in the 19th century is too much of a stretch for me personally.
That is an incomplete statement; you did not indicate the standard by which you evaluate those verses and words that support doctrine. Doctrines are strengthened or weakened compared to what standard text? And by what (and whose) criteria has this text become the sole standard?Pastor_Bob said:... When verses and words are omitted that would strengthen or add additional support to a doctrine, then it can rightly be said that a doctrine has been diluted or weakened...
Two or three witnesses.Pastor_Bob said:... The question ought to be, "How many references does it take to establish a doctrine?"
Exactly, no difference in doctrine.Every time evil appears we abstain from it. Is that really a doctrinal issue?
Ed Edwards said:'God is not the author of Confusion' is misunderstood in the KJVs by many. They think it means 'inner turmoil when that was not a 1611 meaning of 'Confusion' at all. The very verse contrasts 'confusion' and 'peace' for the two terms are self defined in the Bible as being opposites.
franklinmonroe said:That is an incomplete statement; you did not indicate the standard by which you evaluate those verses and words that support doctrine. Doctrines are strengthened or weakened compared to what standard text? And by what (and whose) criteria has this text become the sole standard?