2) 1 Corinthians 2:14 teaches that the lost cannot understand any of the things of the Spirit of God.
Greetings to you Van. My brother in Christ.
I read your points and thought I would comment on #2. For transparency to all that read this, I am a compatibilist with a Un/Limited (notice the slash divider) in regard to the Atonement. Further, I think the Scripture teaches that since mankind is fallen, he is totally depraved (not utterly depraved). This means that God must make the first move of reconciliation (be careful to not assume what I mean here). However, this also suggests, since all mankind is without excuse, that God does make a first move to all people (since all are without excuse). This first move might be called prevenient grace to some, to others general revelation, and yet others possibly an outward call (as opposed to an inward call).
When considering this topic, I ask myself, “If God so chose, could God enlighten the unbelieving just enough to reveal their need for Him?” To this I answer, of course. If God so chooses, certainly God could. So the next question is, “Did God so choose to enlighten unbelievers, just a little bit? Or all mankind just some” Again, this "just some" would be a prevenient grace, an outward call, or something of the like.
To be clear on what I am doing. I am making the distinction between (a) a call and (b) the actual point of salvation. My focus is on the call. The word “call” itself implies that God is the active agent. Before I can receive a call (prevenient or outward), I must be called.
I would first like to start with 2 Corinthians 4:4. In 2 Cor 4:4, "blinded the minds" is not referring to the actual, physical act of "seeing". As I'm sure everyone knows. The unbelieving don't wonder around saying, "what book, I don't see a book" or "what words, this page is blank". The unbelieving 'see' the same thing we see, i.e., the book and the words. They read the same things we read, word-for-word. Those words are present in their minds just as it is the believers. So what does it mean that “the god of this world has blinded the minds of the unbelieving”? For it surely doesn't imply actual, physical blindness.
To the assertion of 1Cor 2:14 being a verse that says the lost cannot understand any of the things of the Spirit. I actually, after study, think the NASB has the best understanding of this verse.
(
1Cor 2:14 NASB95)
14 But a natural man does not accept the things of the Spirit of God, for they are foolishness to him; and he cannot understand them, because they are spiritually appraised...
I think that
1Cor 2:14 makes this more clear. The unbelieving are said to "not accept the things of the Spirit". They often get the information, they process it, but
they do not accept it. (emphasis on the word "accept"). So, being blind to it means it is insufficient to persuade spiritually. So why don't they accept it?
Going back to the 1Cor 2:14 NASB95 verse, the unbelieving can read the same thing but they “appraise” (NASB95) it as foolishness. They appraise it as foolishness because at the point of concluding it as spiritual truth, they do not accept it. Here the word “foolishness” does not mean incoherence or goobledegook. It means its conclusion is deemed as foolish. To deem something as foolish one must at least have a handle on what is being considered. Since all mankind is without excuse, then it would seem to follow that the unbelieving at least know ‘some’ of what they are appraising. Enough to be without excuse. And if the Spirit and the initiation of God must be first, then it also follows that God first sent this spiritual something (a call maybe) so then the natural man could then "appraise" it as foolishness.
Peace to you brothers
