The reason it is different is that I no longer view Christ's death as a payment for the sin debt of the elect but instead view Christ as dying both for the human family and also for the elect corporately (the Church).
How do you evaluate my definition of definite atonement?
Jon, the view you articulated in the first paragraph is more in keeping with conditional election, i.e. Arminianism. If Christ died for the human family (all of humanity) there must, by necessity, be the ability for all to believe the gospel. If not, then His death on the part of all of humanity is futile and against His nature.
JonC post: 2563996 said:I know it is a short definition and I could have expounded, but do you believe my understanding of definite atonement incorrect?
I have difficulty dissecting how you view definite atonement and what you actually believe. Your post seems to be conflating the terms. The only part I understand clearly is when you wrote, "I no longer view Christ's death as a payment for the sin debt of the elect but instead view Christ as dying both for the human family and also for the elect corporately " This is a statement of what you believe. So, it seems you know what definite atonement is, you just do not believe in it. When it comes to Election, the Calvinist position is Unconditional Election; Unconditional Election being, "A view associated with Augustine and Calvin that God elects to save some solely on the basis of God's freedom and love and not on the basis of any merit or efforts on the part of humans." (McKim)