BobRyan
Well-Known Member
Bob said:BR: As Paul points out in Romans 3 and in Romans 7 - God's Law "defines sin". God's Law is among other things - a written transcript of God's perfect will.
HP: First, thank you BR for your input this far. So far I believe BR is the only one that has attempted to define moral law. Lets look at his comments briefly. He says, “God's Law "defines sin.” OK, but that begs the question, what is sin? If we go back to Scripture and find that sin is a transgression of the law, we have in reality gained little by this one so far that I can tell.
BR's second remark was, “God's Law is among other things - a written transcript of God's perfect will.” Here again that begs the question, what is God’s perfect will? Not to dismiss what BR has added, still yet I find that in reality somewhat less than defining God’s moral law. I still give BR thumbs up for giving it an honest attempt. :thumbsup:
In my estimation, I can think of no other way to begin to understand law, and moral law, apart from first defining law and moral law respectively, and then move on to recognizing some clear attibutes of moral law.
It has been said that, ‘law is a rule of action with sanctions,’ so moral law would be ‘a rule of moral law with sanctions.’ Moral law governs over the actions of free will alone. Moral law does not govern over matters of necessity, but rather things of necessity would be ruled by the laws of nature. So as we see, there are two opposing realms of law, one ruling over things of necessity and one ruling over the free acts of the will. If the will of man is not free, moral law cannot govern or rule over its intents or actions. I see that as one of the most basic concepts we need to grasp if we are going to begin to understand moral law. Without this basic understanding of moral law, confusion will reign in any discussion of ceremonial law as we go along.
Is there anyone that would disagree with the comments made so far or would add or clarify any point? Do all agree that moral law governs over free acts of the will alone, and not acts driven by neccesity?
In Jer 31:32 Jeremiah says that God writes His Law on the heart under the New Covenant.
In Romans 7 Paul quotes from the Ten Commandments and says that the Law is what defines sin.
in James 2 - James quotes from the Ten Commandments - calling them the "Law of Liberty" -- He also quotes from Lev 19:18 "Love your Neighbor" calling it the "Royal Law"
Christ in Matt 22 includes Lev 19:18 along with Deut 6:5 "Love God with all of your heart"
In Eph 6:1-3 Paul says that the fith commandment is "the first commandment with a promise" thus continuing to affirm the "unit" of Ten.
So the first and "easiest" definition for the Law of God is the Ten Commandments and also Lev 19:18 and Deut 6:5.
Heb 9:4 it is "only the Ten Commandments" that were kept inside the ark.
Deut 10:2.
"He spoke these TEN words and added no more" Deut 5:22
Thus it is clear that when Jeremiah said that God writes His "Law upon the heart" under the New Covenant the Ten Commandments were understood by the author and the readers to be a distinct UNIT of Law.
And clearly from Christ's Matt 22 statements on Lev 19:18 and Deut 6:5 - the Ten Commandents were not considered by Christ or the Jews listening to him to be the "only commandments" in God's Word that had binding authority as LAW.
So when Paul speaks of "keeping the Commandments of God" 1Cor 7:19 it is clear that the Ten Commandments are part of what is being spoken of -
(Covering the easy - most obvious points first)
in Christ,
Bob