More Words Hard to Translate

[Bassoonery]

Okay, just one more today. It's a simple word on the surface: doulos (δοῦλος). This is a basic and important word, so the Greek 101 student gets it in a vocabulary assignment very early on in the typical textbook (Lesson 4 in the textbook I use, Learn to Read NT Greek, by David Alan Black). Typically, two glosses (basic meanings) are given for this word: servant, slave. The word occurs in 119 verses of the Textus Receptus Greek text.

Here is where the difficulty comes in. When is a doulos a servant, and when is he a slave? Now, the KJV unfailingly translates this word with "servant," but there was a complicated system of genuine slavery in the Roman Empire. And there were many, many slaves, some say a third of the population of the empire in the major cities. And, "The extent of the lord's or owner's control over the life, the family, the production, and potential freedom of the enslaved person varied greatly" (Servant, Slave," International Standard Bible Encyclopedia, rev., " Vol. 4, p. 420).

Now, there are passages where the doulos is clearly a slave, such as in the little book of Philemon. And there are other places where the doulos is clearly a servant, such as the doulos of the high priest whose ear Peter cut off (Matt. 26:51). How in the world does the translator tell the difference? At this point I would say to my class, "1, 2, 3...." And they would all holler, "Context!"

But to complicate matters, there is another Greek word translated "servant" but not meaning "slave." That is the word pais (παῖς). Not only does it not mean "slave," sometimes it means "child." This word occurs in 24 verses in the NT. Again, only context tells whether or not it should be rendered "servant" or "child."

So, chew on that for a while, and take some time to pray for Bible translators around the world.

I mentioned slavery in an earlier post, and the word bawih is used in all the cases you have mentioned without distinction. The reason why it is so interesting is because some of the earlier missionaries (but not, to my knowledge, the first missionaries) campaigned successfully to have British lawmakers back in London ban the bawih system and saw this as one of their finest achievements, whereas there were and still are some who were of the opinion that it was a misunderstood welfare system.

In Philippians 3:8 is a controversial hapax legomenon (a word used only once in the NT) translated "dung" in the KJV. The word is skubalon (σκύβαλον), and in recent years it has become controversial because some scholars say that it is what linguists call a taboo word. Here is a definition of that: "Taboo word A word known to speakers but avoided in some, most, or all forms or contexts of speech, for reasons of religion, decorum, politeness, etc.” (P. H. Matthews, Oxford Concise Dictionary of Linguistics, p. 400).

Now some scholars think that Paul used a taboo word here equivalent to the "s word" in English. Here is the footnote in the NET Bible: "The word here translated 'dung' was often used in Greek as a vulgar term for fecal matter. As such it would most likely have had a certain shock value for the readers. This may well be Paul’s meaning here, especially since the context is about what the flesh produces" (NET Bible NT, note 15 on p. 635). However, it is significant that the NET Bible rendering is "dung" and not a taboo word!

Here is the view of one Greek scholar that Paul used a taboo word: A Brief Word Study on Σκύβαλον | Bible.org

So, is skubalon a taboo word? I say that it is not. Note the following salient facts:
1. There are not other words considered to be taboo words in the entire NT.
2. Paul uses such words nowhere but possibly here in all of his writings. So he did not have a habit of it.
3. Paul is using the word in reference to his loyalty to Christ. It would be very strange if he were to use a taboo word in that context.
4. In my own research, in other Greek literature, I learned that the word is commonly used in a technical way by physicians. Would a doctor use a taboo word in talking about his craft or in speaking to a patient about his condition? No, of course not. Here is a source that quotes from Greek medical documents: Obscenity in Paul? The Question of σκύβαλον

So, how should the word be translated? I suggest using a common word for garbage or refuse. Using a taboo word for excrement just for shock value might cause the translation to be rejected by the very people group for which it is intended! Such things have actually happened!

The Mizo uses just as you suggest, a word for refuse/waste.

There is a very similar problem in Chaucer’s Canterbury Tales. The Prologue contains the phrase “shitten shepherd” to refer to corrupt hypocritical priests. He seems to be alluding to the strong language Jesus used against the pharisees. I never use the ‘s’ word in Modern English but enjoy practising Middle English as a hobby and press through this passage keeping in mind that the intention is to condemn hypocrisy and not to endorse it.

 

[Bassoonery]

One would think that the simple word "sword" would be easy to translate. That is true in some languages where there is a generic word for sword, such as, well, "sword"! Japanese fortunately has such a word, tsurugi (剣). But there is in Japanese a temptation to translate with the word for the incredible Japanese samurai long sword, the katana (刀)! But that would be a mistake. There is a shorter sword also carried by samurai warriors, the wakizashi (脇差), and that would be better but not totally equivalent.

As for the Chinese language, that country is just loaded with weapons, including various swords. When we were in Hong Kong on a martial arts ministry trip I bought a miniature display of Chinese weapons. No problem choosing a word for sword there. Those folks can kill you in a bunch of ways!

There are two words for sword in Greek. The most common one is machaira (μάχαιρα). This is what Peter cut off the man's ear with, what was used by Herod's executioner to kill James with (Acts 12:1-2), what the jailer was going to kill himself with (Acts 16:27), etc. I believe this is a generic word for sword, since it was used for various blades quite often in the LXX. However, it may be the Greek equivalent to the gladius (Latin), which was the Roman short sword, usually double-edged. The Greek word does appear in Roman papyri, according to my BAGD lexicon.

The other Greek word for sword is the hromphaia (ῥομφάιρα), which according to my BAGD lexicon (Bauer, Arndt, Gingrich, Danker) was "a large and broad sword, used by barbaric peoples, esp. the Thracians" (p. 737). It was a long, curved, deadly looking single-edged sword. It was deadly! It occurred in only 7 verses, notably in Luke 2:35, where Simeon uses it for the metaphorical sword that would pierce the heart of Mary, the mother of Jesus. All of the other times it occurs are in Revelation, where all the swords are deadly! (Be advised that if the Romanization you find is romphaia, it is mistaken. There is a rough breathing mark on the rho, which adds an "h" sound to the beginning of the word.)

I think most languages with a history of war would have a generic word for sword. However, what word would you use if you were translating into a tribal language? Most jungle tribes have machetes nowadays, and maybe this would have to be the word used. What do you think?

“Martial arts ministry trip”! Now there’s a phrase I’ve never seen before!

You are right that various kinds of machete were and still are very common here. They are incredibly versatile, for farming, domestic use and as a weapon, but such a tool is not indicated in the translations of sword. Acts 12 uses khan-daih, Luke 2 uses ngun-hnam, both defined as ‘sword’, though the latter seems to be more associated with some kind of fencing. These are well beyond my lexical range so I have no idea about the historical background of these weapons!

 

[John of Japan]

Yes, that's fair enough. I do wonder if the word is more suited to apostle than messenger/angel though, which could do with a better alternative. It has been widely used for the title Apostle (Apostle Paul - Tirhkoh Paul) so it is perhaps the meaning people would more immediately think of when hearing the word.

Once a word like "apostle" has become entrenched in a culture it is hard to dislodge it. Meanings become set, words become set, and it is often hard to discern the original Biblical meaning.

On leprosy, you mentioned the need to translate both the Greek and the Hebrew. Are we sure that the Hebrew and Greek diseases were one and the same? Could the pathology have changed in the intervening centuries as much as it has done in the last two millennia? Leprosy as it is now understood is still prevalent in India. I’ve heard first-hand stories from people who have encountered lepers kept in windowless cells. It’s perhaps precisely because of the biblical accounts that leprosy attracts a lot of attention from Christian charities here, even if the disease Jesus encountered was not necessarily the same. There is a Mizo word for it, and I expect it refers to the disease as it is presently understood in India, though I have never encountered it in Mizoram itself.

The Hebrew and Greek words are not 100% synonymous, but are fairly close. They both have a wider range of meaning than the English word, or other modern words for the modern disease, such as "Hansen's Disease. Remember that the Hebrew word can even be used for some kind of a fungus in a house, or even in clothing, such as in this verse: "The garment also that the plague of leprosy is in, whether it be a woollen garment, or a linen garment" (Lev. 13:47).

As to whether or not the Greek word was the same as the Hebrew, I don't think they were exactly the same, as a said, but remember that Jewish culture had become fairly intertwined with Greek culture, so much so that Greek was the lingua franca, and many Jews had gone over to Greek culture, and were called Hellenists. So I think that by the 1st century AD the thinking was the same in the two languages. However, that does not mean that when Moses wrote Lev. in about 1400 BC or so that the meaning was the same as it was when Jesus lived. As you say, pathologies--and words--change over the centuries.

 

[John of Japan]

“Martial arts ministry trip”! Now there’s a phrase I’ve never seen before!

In my college years I trained in various Asian martial arts, and was connected to a professional martial arts evangelist--it idea being that you get people (kids and teens, usually) to come see a martial arts demonstration, then you preach the Gospel to them. Down through the years I've had various connections (tournaments, demonstrations, seminars, etc.) with the Christian martial arts community in the States.

I got to know some young Chinese in Hong Kong who had started such a ministry, and they invited me to come and show them how it was done in the West, as well as teach them for a few days. It was an awesome trip! We ended up with a large sports competition and martial arts demonstration. I preached then, and two young Chinese men trusted Christ as Savior.

You are right that various kinds of machete were and still are very common here. They are incredibly versatile, for farming, domestic use and as a weapon, but such a tool is not indicated in the translations of sword. Acts 12 uses khan-daih, Luke 2 uses ngun-hnam, both defined as ‘sword’, though the latter seems to be more associated with some kind of fencing. These are well beyond my lexical range so I have no idea about the historical background of these weapons!

I understand that India has a long and varied martial tradition, with many varied martial arts and weapons. So I'm sure there were not any problems in translating "sword" for your people group. Using the word "machete" would be a valid strategy for a tribal culture that had no real swords.

 

[John of Japan]

According to Bible translation consultant and theorist Eugene Nida, the Greek word parakletos (παράκλητος) is "one of the most difficult in the Bible to render adequately" (God's Word in Man's Language, p. 20). It has become a theological loan word, Paraclete, and refers to the Holy Spirit in John 14:16, 14:26, 15:26, 16:7, and 1 John 2:7. The KJV translated it "Comforter" most times but "advocate" in 1 John, but most modern versions go for "Helper" in John but agree with the KJV in 1 John with "advocate," but there it refers to Jesus. This echoes the fact that Jesus says the Holy Spirit is "another comforter" in John 14:16, meaning He Himself is a parakletos.

So, the first problem is where to use each of the main two glosses: "comforter" and "helper," in the book of John. This can be a very difficult thing to figure out in many tribal languages. Nida tells about the Karre people of Africa, where the translator despaired of finding a good Karre word. Finally they told her to use "one who falls down beside us" (ibid, 20-21). She didn't understand until they explained that this is the term for a person who aids someone who has fainted on the jungle trail and cannot get to the safety of the next village. Such a person is in danger of being killed and eaten on the way. So the Holy Spirit is "the One who sustains, protects, and keeps the children of God on their journey toward their heavenly home" (p. 21).

 

[John of Japan]

In some languages the words for "believe" (noun, verb) are difficult to translate. The Greek verb for "I believe" is pisteuo (πιστεύω), and the noun for "faith" or "belief" is pistos (πιστός). This is a pretty basic word in English, and I'm sure all of the translations render it the same. Even groups such as the Catholics or Jehovah's Witnesses render it the same. You have to!

The word is also fairly straightforward in Japanese and Chinese, where the Chinese character is 信. This character is fascinating to me because it is made up of radicals meaning person (人) and word (言). The second one represents lines of speech coming out of the mouth (the square). So "faith" in Chinese and Japanese is trusting in what someone says. It should be easy to translate, then, but I had a run-in years ago with one of the JW translators of the Japanese "New World Bible," They had almost always translated the Greek verb with 信仰を働かせる ("Make your faith work") instead of the obvious "believe." Oddly enough, the English JW translators did not do that!

Translators into tribal languages sometimes have difficulty finding the right word. Eugene Nida tells of such languages where the rendering for faith is "to hear and take into the soul," or "to hear within one's self and not let go," or "to cause God's word to enter the heart," or "truth entering the soul." (God's Word in Man's Language, 118-119). You can see the difficulty, I'm sure.

One variant of the Greek is important to get right. When the Greek article comes before the word, as in ὁ πιστός, it usually does not mean a person's individual faith, but "the faith" as the body of beliefs that make up our Christian hope. A good example of this usage is in Acts 16:5, "And so were the churches established in the faith, and increased in number daily." We usually understand this correctly in English, but it is easy to see how it might be a problem in other languages. It is problematic in the many Asian languages which do not have the article, such as Japanese and Chinese. We were not able to get this nuance into Japanese.

 

[Yeshua1]

In some languages the words for "believe" (noun, verb) are difficult to translate. The Greek verb for "I believe" is pisteuo (πιστεύω), and the noun for "faith" or "belief" is pistos (πιστός). This is a pretty basic word in English, and I'm sure all of the translations render it the same. Even groups such as the Catholics or Jehovah's Witnesses render it the same. You have to!

The word is also fairly straightforward in Japanese and Chinese, where the Chinese character is 信. This character is fascinating to me because it is made up of radicals meaning person (人) and word (言). The second one represents lines of speech coming out of the mouth (the square). So "faith" in Chinese and Japanese is trusting in what someone says. It should be easy to translate, then, but I had a run-in years ago with one of the JW translators of the Japanese "New World Bible," They had almost always translated the Greek verb with 信仰を働かせる ("Make your faith work") instead of the obvious "believe." Oddly enough, the English JW translators did not do that!

Translators into tribal languages sometimes have difficulty finding the right word. Eugene Nida tells of such languages where the rendering for faith is "to hear and take into the soul," or "to hear within one's self and not let go," or "to cause God's word to enter the heart," or "truth entering the soul." (God's Word in Man's Language, 118-119). You can see the difficulty, I'm sure.

One variant of the Greek is important to get right. When the Greek article comes before the word, as in ὁ πιστός, it usually does not mean a person's individual faith, but "the faith" as the body of beliefs that make up our Christian hope. A good example of this usage is in Acts 16:5, "And so were the churches established in the faith, and increased in number daily." We usually understand this correctly in English, but it is easy to see how it might be a problem in other languages. It is problematic in the many Asian languages which do not have the article, such as Japanese and Chinese. We were not able to get this nuance into Japanese.

How about when Jesus stated will he find "faith" at His second coming, and Jude about the faith once and for all delivered to the saints?

 

[Van]

Two times in the NT, the Greek word is in the imperative, Luke 8:50 and Acts 16:31. This appears (to me) to be another entreaty, thus pleading for the person to take the action of trusting in God's revelation.

Sometimes "the faith" simply points to a kind of faith, thus the faith of Abraham refers to his "all in" kind of faith. And sometimes when we see "the faith" in an English translation, the "the" has been supplied and does not appear in the Greek. (1 Timothy 1:2)

 

[John of Japan]

How about when Jesus stated will he find "faith" at His second coming, and Jude about the faith once and for all delivered to the saints?

Luke 18:8 has the article in Greek. Jude also does, but in an interesting nuance the article there comes before "saints," so "delivered to the saints faith."

 

[robycop3]

Next, just think about translating "circumcision" and "uncircumcision" into a tribal language. I mean, really! (Shudder!) I've read various biographies of missionary translators, and things are tough enough for those good people without trying to get the concept of circumcision into the language of a culture that can't even register the need for such a procedure.

That might have to wait til that tribe learns the basics of Christianity first.

 

[John of Japan]

That might have to wait til that tribe learns the basics of Christianity first.

You're probably right.

 

[John of Japan]

There is a difficult word in 1 Cor. 7:36, huperakmos (ὑπέρακμος, “flower of her age” in the KJV). It is a hapax legomenon, meaning it occurs only here in the NT. It is also what is called a two- termination adjective. In other words, it only has two possible suffixes (masc./fem., or neuter) instead of the three that the Greek adjective usually has (m, f, n). In this verse it is masc./fem. Thus, in the context it could refer to either a man or a woman. It is used in extra-biblical sources to refer to a virgin woman, so chances are that is the usage here.

Two commentaries on the Greek, Alford’s Greek Testament and A. T. Robertson’s Word Pictures in the New Testament, both go with the father as the one being talked to by Paul, and I also think it refers to a father and his virgin daughter. As for the meaning here, I believe it should be translated as "one's prime of life," or maybe "one who has come of age." (Many tribal cultures have "coming of age" customs.) So the message is that a father with a grown daughter getting too old to marry is free to let her enter a courtship.

Interestingly enough, we are entering a time in American history where truly separated parents, seeking to act right about their daughter, might end up with daughters in the late 20's or early 30's still not married. I know several good, godly families with several unmarried adult daughters. So this passage is becoming more relevant to the modern Christian family.

 

[Ziggy]

Luke 18:8 has the article in Greek. Jude also does, but in an interesting nuance the article there comes before "saints," so "delivered to the saints faith."

But "the" of the before "the saints" is dative plural, while "the" before "faith" precedes "delivered". Two different things, and a case of an embedded dative phrase placed inside a longer dative phrase. Read it as "the faith once delivered to the saints".

 

[robycop3]

There is a difficult word in 1 Cor. 7:36, huperakmos (ὑπέρακμος, “flower of her age” in the KJV). It is a hapax legomenon, meaning it occurs only here in the NT. It is also what is called a two- termination adjective. In other words, it only has two possible suffixes (masc./fem., or neuter) instead of the three that the Greek adjective usually has (m, f, n). In this verse it is masc./fem. Thus, in the context it could refer to either a man or a woman. It is used in extra-biblical sources to refer to a virgin woman, so chances are that is the usage here.

Two commentaries on the Greek, Alford’s Greek Testament and A. T. Robertson’s Word Pictures in the New Testament, both go with the father as the one being talked to by Paul, and I also think it refers to a father and his virgin daughter. As for the meaning here, I believe it should be translated as "one's prime of life," or maybe "one who has come of age." (Many tribal cultures have "coming of age" customs.) So the message is that a father with a grown daughter getting too old to marry is free to let her enter a courtship.

Interestingly enough, we are entering a time in American history where truly separated parents, seeking to act right about their daughter, might end up with daughters in the late 20's or early 30's still not married. I know several good, godly families with several unmarried adult daughters. So this passage is becoming more relevant to the modern Christian family.

The custom among jews, and others, of that time, was that parents of multiple daughters wanted them to marry in order of their ages, eldest first.
And there were some who'd started a rumor that Paul had commanded single Christians not to marry, but to be as himself. (This may be where the harmful rule in the RCC, that its clergy be celibate, came from. We see some of the great harm of this practice in the "Boyzz R Us" clubs among that clergy.) Paul knew, of course, that if no one married or had kids, mankind would die off. And he certainly didn't forbid marriage! He was trying to dispel that rumor.

 

[John of Japan]

But "the" of the before "the saints" is dative plural, while "the" before "faith" precedes "delivered". Two different things, and a case of an embedded dative phrase placed inside a longer dative phrase. Read it as "the faith once delivered to the saints".

Good points.

 

[John of Japan]

The custom among jews, and others, of that time, was that parents of multiple daughters wanted them to marry in order of their ages, eldest first.
And there were some who'd started a rumor that Paul had commanded single Christians not to marry, but to be as himself. (This may be where the harmful rule in the RCC, that its clergy be celibate, came from. We see some of the great harm of this practice in the "Boyzz R Us" clubs among that clergy.) Paul knew, of course, that if no one married or had kids, mankind would die off. And he certainly didn't forbid marriage! He was trying to dispel that rumor.

Thanks for the background information.

 

[John of Japan]

I did a thread a long time ago about translating idioms, if I remember correctly. They are not usually just one word, but are often difficult to translate. A good example of this difficulty is in 1 Peter 2:24, where we have tais hamartiais apogenomenoi (ταῖς ἁμαρτίαις ἀπογενόμενοι), “being dead to sins.” Translating anything to do with death into another language is very often problematic, though there is usually a straightforward word meaning "death." However, quite often circumlocutions are used, just like in English: passed away, passed (a recent usage), went to Heaven, slipped away, etc. In the case of this idiom, the translator must determine what impression the idiom leaves with the hearer.

It is very hard to make this idiom work literally in Japanese, and one may question its literal rendering in English. It just doesn’t make sense in an Asian language, and may even steer the reader completely away from the authorial intent! So in our new Japanese translation we had to choose a wording that made sense. Thus, we translated this into Japanese as 罪と係わりを断った私たち (refusing connection with sin), an idiom into a non-idiom.

In illustration of this difficulty, I once preached at a friend's church in Japan, and spoke of "death to self." I suggested that if you walked up to a corpse and slapped it, it would not react. There was an audible gasp from the congregation from two young ladies who were attending church for the very first time. They never came back; the words the missionary used were just too shocking!

 

[John of Japan]

The word "preach" in one form or another occurs in 127 verses in the KJV. The difficulty here is that there are many different words translated in the KJV with "preach" or a cognate. So the question is, do you translate all of these words with the same word in the target language like the KJV did, or do you differentiate between them somehow?

I'll be giving just basic definitions from F. Wilbur Gingrich, Shorter Lexicon of the Greek New Testament (accessed through BibleWorks). Here they are:

Kerusso (κηρύσσω): "proclaim aloud, announce, mention publicly, preach most often in reference to God's saving action Mt 10:27; Mk 1:4, 39, 45; 5:20; 7:36; 13:10; Lk 8:39; 9:2; 12:3; 24:47; Ac 15:21; Ro 2:21; 1 Cor 9:27; 15:12; 2 Cor 4:5; Gal 2:2; 5:11; 1 Th 2:9; 2 Ti 4:2; Rv 5:2. Proclaim victory 1 Pt 3:19. [pg. 108].

Kerugma (κήρυγγμα; a noun): proclamation, preaching [pg. 108].

Laleo (λαλεω): sound, give forth sounds or tones of inanimate things Hb 11:4; 12:24; Rv 4:1; 10:4 .—2. speak Mt 12:34, 46f; 13:3; Mk 1:34; Lk 1:19, 55; Ac 13:45; 18:9; 1 Cor 13:11; 14:29; Hb 2:5; Rv 13:11. Be able to speak Mk 7:35, 37; Lk 1:20, 64. Proclaim, say Mt 12:36; Mk 2:2; J 3:34; 16:25a; 1 Cor 2:6f. [pg 116]

euaggelizo (εύαγγελίζω): bring or announce good news Lk 1:19; Rv 14:6. Proclaim, preach (the gospel) Lk 4:43; Ac 13:32; Ro 15:20; 1 Cor 15:1; 2 Cor 10:16; Gal 1:11, 23 ; 1 Pt 1:12. Pass. have good news (the gospel) preached to one Mt 11:5; Hb 4:2, 6. [evangelize] [pg 80]

diaggelo (διαγγέλλω): proclaim far and wide Lk 9:60; Ro 9:17; Mk 5:19 v.l. Give notice of Ac 21:26.* [pg 45]

prokerrusso (προκηρύσσω): proclaim beforehand Ac 13:24; pass. 3:20 v.l.* [pg 169]

kataggello (καταγγέλλω): proclaim Ac 13:5; 16:21; 17:23; Ro 1:8; 1 Cor 9:14; 11:26; Phil 1:17f. [pg 101]

parresiazomai (παρρησιάζομαι): 1. speak freely, openly, fearlessly; express oneself freely Ac 9:27f ; 13:46; 14:3; 18:26; 19:8; 26:26; Eph 6:20.—2. have the courage, venture 1 Th 2:2.* [pg 152]

dialegomai (διαλέγομαι): 1. discuss, conduct a discussion Mk 9:34; Ac 19:8f; 20:7; 24:12.—2. speak, preach 18:4; Hb 12:5. [pg 46]

logos (λόγος; a noun): JoJ: only in Col. 1:18; normally "word" or "message"

akoe (ἀκοή; a noun, only in Heb. 4:2): the faculty of hearing 1 Cor 12:17. The act of hearing, listening 2 Pt 2:8; avkoh|/ avkou,sete you will indeed hear Mt 13:14. The organ of hearing, the ear Mk 7:35 ; Ac 17:20.—2. that which is heard: fame, report, rumor Mt 4:24; 14:1; 24:6. Account, report, preaching J 12:38; Gal 3:2, 5; Hb 4:2; 1 Th 2:13. [pg 7]

 

[John of Japan]

You might think that the Greek word for "lord," kurios (κὐριος), would always be easy to translate, but it's not. One difficulty arises when the word is not used by a disciple referring to the Lord Jesus or to God Himself. In those cases it is simply a polite term for someone who is respected. In other words, it is what linguists call an honorific in those cases.

I recently was looking through some proofreading notes on our Japanese translation of Revelation, where when John spoke to an angel we had him say danna (旦那), which is kind of like "Mister." (Japanese uses san for Mr., Mrs., and Miss, but it cannot stand alone like the English "Mister" can.) The proofreader felt this was too familiar, or low class, or something, to use for an angel. But our reasoning is that John was hesitant, and didn't quite know what to call the angel.

Consider these verses, all with kurios. Would you translate any of them as "Lord"?

Mt 13:27 So the servants of the householder came and said unto him, Sir, didst not thou sow good seed in thy field? from whence then hath it tares?
Mt 21:30 And he came to the second, and said likewise. And he answered and said, I [go], sir: and went not.
Mt 27:63 Saying, Sir, we remember that that deceiver said, while he was yet alive, After three days I will rise again.
Joh 4:11 The woman saith unto him, Sir, thou hast nothing to draw with, and the well is deep: from whence then hast thou that living water?
Joh 4:15 The woman saith unto him, Sir, give me this water, that I thirst not, neither come hither to draw.
Joh 4:19 The woman saith unto him, Sir, I perceive that thou art a prophet.
Joh 4:49 The nobleman saith unto him, Sir, come down ere my child die.
Joh 5:7 The impotent man answered him, Sir, I have no man, when the water is troubled, to put me into the pool: but while I am coming, another steppeth down before me.
Joh 12:21 The same came therefore to Philip, which was of Bethsaida of Galilee, and desired him, saying, Sir, we would see Jesus.
Joh 20:15 Jesus saith unto her, Woman, why weepest thou? whom seekest thou? She, supposing him to be the gardener, saith unto him, Sir, if thou have borne him hence, tell me where thou hast laid him, and I will take him away.
Re 7:14 And I said unto him, Sir, thou knowest. And he said to me, These are they which came out of great tribulation, and have washed their robes, and made them white in the blood of the Lamb.

 

[John of Japan]

There are two Greek words translated "friend" in the KJV, philos (φιλός) and hetairos (ἑταῖρος). We have already discussed the first. The second only occurs in the following verses in the NT:

Mt 11:16 But whereunto shall I liken this generation? It is like unto children sitting in the markets, and calling unto their fellows,
Mt 20:13 But he answered one of them, and said, Friend, I do thee no wrong: didst not thou agree with me for a penny?
Mt 22:12 And he saith unto him, Friend, how camest thou in hither not having a wedding garment? And he was speechless.
Mt 26:50 And Jesus said unto him, Friend, wherefore art thou come? Then came they, and laid hands on Jesus, and took him.

The difficulty is that hetairos is a more casual word than philos. In English, the word "friend" can be used as casual greeting or in other casual ways. But that is not true in many languages. The translator must evaluate what level of closeness the word in the target language is. Japanese has several words for friend: literary (tomo, 友), colloquial, "friend" (yuujin, 友人), colloquial, "friend" (tomodachi, 友達), close friend (shinyuu, 親友). person in the same group (nakama, 仲間). Most translations go with the literary word for this Greek word.