defenderofthefaith said:
The Psalmist was a man under the Mosaic Law and his worship was a work of the law. His worship consisted of musical instruments - therefore musical instruments in worship is of the law.
As has been mentioned to you many times already, David did not write under the law. He wrote under the inspiration of the Holy Spirit entirely apart from the Law. Were the Psalms abolished at the cross; nailed to the tree; done away by the blood of Christ, never to applicable for us any more? Of course not! The Psalms are prayers and songs of David and other psalmists. They come from the hearts of those who wrote them, inspired of God, for our benefit. They are classified, not as books of the Law, but as "Poetical Books." Your assertion is just plain wrong.
Revelation 5:8-9 [ESV]
"And when he had taken the scroll, the four living creatures and the twenty-four elders fell down before the Lamb, each holding a harp, and golden bowls full of incense, which are the prayers of the saints.
And they sang a new song, saying,
Worthy are you to take the scroll and to open its seals, for you were slain, and by your blood you ransomed people for God from every tribe and language and people and nation,"
Concerning Revelation....
The fact is that the book of Revelation uses extensive figurative language.
So did Jesus:
I am the door.
I am the Good Shepherd.
I am the light of the world.
It is easier for a camel to go through the eye of a needle than for a rich man to enter into the kingdom of God.
The Lord said to Abraham that he would make his seed: as the sand of the sea.
"I will uphold thee with the right hand of my righteousness."
He that does not eat my flesh and does not drink my blood cannot be my disciple.
I quoted from all of the gospels, the book of Isaiah, and the book of Genesis. Are you willing to rip those books out of your Bible also? Or at least entertain the possibility of admitting that you cannot use any of those books for interpretation for they all contain figures of speech. That really ties your hands doesn't it. Every book of the Bible contains figures of speech. You cannot get around it.
Revelation is also a book of apocalyptic literature. Several books of Jewish apocalyptic literature are available for everyone, such as in the Old Testament, the books of Daniel, Ezekiel, Isaiah, and Joel contain apocalyptic literature.
Revelation isn't a Jewish apocalyptic book. Put it to rest.
Apocalyptic literature uses signs and symbols to veil its message to outside readers. This type of literature was written when the Jewish nation was amidst one of its most tumultuous times—when the Israelites were under attack, or ruled over, by another powerful nation.
This argument does not apply. Revelation was written at the same time as the Gospel of John and as all three epistles of John. Are you willing to throw them out as well? The Gospel of John is full of signs and symbols. Yet, it is the most widely used book to present the gospel--the new birth.
Ray Summers explained as follows: “The personal safety of both writer and reader was endangered if the persecutors understood the true meaning of the book. For this reason the message of the apocalypse [Revelation and other books] was written so as to conceal and to reveal—to conceal the message from the outsider but to reveal its message to the initiated” (1951, p. 5)
And who is Ray Summers, and why should I listen to him?
The Book of Revelation is part of our canon of Scripture. If you cannot understand what is being written in that book, then you are the one that has the problem, right?
With this principle understood, we can realize that the "harps" found in Revelation 5:8 is symbolic. More evidence that Revelation is a book of figurative language can be understood in chapter one.
No, you are wrong. There is no principle to say that everything in Revelation is symbolic. Is John himself also symbolic. Is God symbolic? How ridiculous do you want to take this logic of yours? You can make the Bible mean anything you want with your method of hermeneutic. It makes no sense. But as I say: If you don't understand the Book of Revelation, then that is your problem, right?
In chapter one (verses 12-17) we read about “One like the Son of Man” who walks among seven golden lampstands and who has a “sharp two-edged sword” coming out of His mouth—a strange picture indeed. But when we continue to read, we find that this man is Jesus, and the seven lampstands are the “seven churches” of Asia (1:20). But what does the sword represent? In apocalyptic literature, a sword coming out of someone’s mouth meant that they were coming to judge a group of people. In Ephesians 6:17, Paul explained that the sword of the Spirit is the Word of God. Hebrews 4:12 explains that “the word of God is living and powerful, and sharper than any two-edged sword.” And John 12:48 informs us that the words of Jesus will judge all people at the last days. The sword coming out of Jesus’ mouth in Revelation 1 is God’s Word, which Jesus was using to judge the churches. Putting the entire picture together, we see Jesus walking among the churches of Asia, cutting out the cancers of sin with the Word of God.
As apocalyptic literature shoes - symbols such as horns often represent kings, numbers represent strength, weakness, perfection, or imperfection, and beasts represent evil nations or powers, ect, ect!
And if you can't understand it then it is your problem, right?
We cannot look to Revelation as a literal guide; it is a book full of symbols and signs that represent something other than the current day definition.
The Gospel of John is full of symbols and signs that represent something other than current day definitions. Therefore, according to you we can't use it. That is your logic.
What logic does it make when Jesus says:
I am the door.
It doesn't. It is symbolic.
But the harps in Revelation five are not symbolic.