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is it manditory that our bible versions must be perfect/without any errors/mistakes in order to considered word of God to us for today?
Not according to the KJV translators?
In their preface to the 1611, the KJV translators asserted: "No cause therefore why the word translated should be denied to be the word, or forbidden to be current, notwithstanding that some imperfections and blemishes may be noted in the setting forth of it. For whatever was perfect under the sun, where apostles or apostolike men, that is, men endued with an extraordinary measure of God's Spirit, and priviledged with the priviledge of infallibility, had not their hand?"
The KJB translators were simply being humble (as they should have been). They did a masterful job as agreed by all. The KJB has been called the greatest literary work ever produced in English. None of the MVs come close to the KJB.
Just because the KJB translators were humble and did not claim perfection does not mean they did not produce an inerrant translation.
Just because the KJB translators were humble
How do you know whether or not the KJV translators were actually humble? Did you know them personally?
Did the KJV translators accept Congregationalists, Baptists, Presbyterians, or others as fellow believers on a level plane with members of the Church of England?
Was it being humble for several of the KJV translators to be involved in active persecution of those who disagreed with their Church of England doctrinal views?
Were the KJV translators "so humble" that they thought that believers who did not permit their infants to be baptized should be persecuted, imprisoned, or worse?
Please, start this as a new topic; I'd like to see your scriptural proof.... I would bet you consider Original Sin as correct doctrine, I am absolutely convinced it is false doctrine and I believe I could easily prove that to you from scripture.
logos1560 said:Was it being humble for several of the KJV translators to be involved in active persecution of those who disagreed with their Church of England doctrinal views?
I can't comment on this, I do not know the details.
Please, start this as a new topic; I'd like to see your scriptural proof.
None of them would claim perfection, that does not mean they made mistakes.
Are you in effect contradicting yourself by suggesting that two exclusive contradictory assertions can both supposedly be true?
If none of the KJV translators could claim perfection in their understanding/interpreting/translating of the Scriptures, it follows that they made mistakes.
If they did not make any mistakes, they would be perfect.
Are you in effect contradicting yourself by suggesting that two exclusive contradictory assertions can both supposedly be true?
If none of the KJV translators could claim perfection in their understanding/interpreting/translating of the Scriptures, it follows that they made mistakes.
If they did not make any mistakes, they would be perfect.