Yes, because it's the effect of Adam's sin, not Adam's sin itself...the Augustinian view.Exactly, the point. The child has not committed their own sin, yet they die. And death is the result of sin. You deny this?
No, the answer is because of the effects of sin that they experience death. If I were to cheat on my wife and contract AIDS and then give it to her unknowingly, did she get AIDS because I passed on my sin, or because of the results of my sinful actions? My sin wasn't given to her, the result of my sin was. The same is true of Adam. We don't inherit his sin, we inherit the results of that sin.So why do infants experience death if they have no sin of their own to perish for?
The answer is because they are sinners, made such by Adam's sin.
Does the text state "all sinned" or "alll are sinners"? The word in question...No one has addressed why Paul says "death came to all men, because all sinned". vs. 12
Notice Paul does not say, "they have sinned", nor "they are sinful".
G264
ἁμαρτάνω
hamartanō
ham-ar-tan'-o
Perhaps from G1 (as a negative particle) and the base of G3313; properly to miss the mark (and so not share in the prize), that is, (figuratively) to err, especially (morally) to sin: - for your faults, offend, sin, trespass.
I agree with this, it's the effects of sin. This is not what you have been saying, however. You imply the infant is a sinner, by definition one who commits sin. What sin was committed?If it dies, then it is affected by sin. Death came because of sin.
Maybe I jumped the gun...do you believe infants are in Heaven or Hell?I'm not following. Can you elaborate?
For that verse to only be talking about those in Christ, you would have to conclude that only those in Christ die. That verse is dealing with the effects of Adam's actions, and the effects of Christ's actions.I don't see univeralism in this verse.
I see it as talking about those who are "in Christ".
Don't you?
Last edited by a moderator: