Michelle:You never answer any questions posed to you, but expect others to answer the questions you pose to them, and then claim that they haven't answered your question.
Please feel free to ask me any of your questions you feel I haven't answered.
I have answered you many times robycop, what other versions are valid. Any version prior to the KJV and including the KJV based upon the Recieved Text - (not necessarily the Shrivners text, for this was made after the KJV and is not full representation of what the previous translators had available to them and used) are God's words of truth.
Thank you!
Each one is different from any other. Are all of them still valid?
These have been the the word of God, as he has provided for the english speaking people for hundreds of years, and in all the true churches from the time of our Lord Jesus Christ until now. I do not doubt this one bit. Do you?
Yep! There's no proof that only this one set of mss was used in every genuine church all this time.
I do NOT consider any of the versions from 1881 until now that are based upon the critical greek text, the pure word of God, based on the fact that there is evidence of error, and omittions/alterations from the history, standing, available and preservation of God's holy words that has been believed, taught, memorized, lived and preached in the true churches for centuries.
There are differences within those mss which are more profound than the differences between mss. You cannot prove which ms is in error & which isn't.
The versions based on the critical greek text come from corrupt greek manuscripts, as is evidenced when one compares them to the word of God churches believed, and held to from the past unto this very day.
Not every church used your pet mss, plain and simple.
God does not change, nor does his word of truth change. The modern versions are strange and alien to the pure word of God from the past even unto this present and for all eternity.
No proof whatsoever.
Now are you going to answer my question to you, or evade it again? How is KJVO a myth?
Because it's a false, man-made doctrine, not containing a peep of truth, not a peep of supporting evidence, especially SCRIPTURAL evidence. This myth didn't exist until recent times although there were many English BVs around long before. Being an apocryphal, false man-made thing, from a book written by a known cult official, it qualifies as a myth.
What I have just posted here is fact, not myth
Without any proof, it remains a myth.