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NIV strong points and weaknesses?

Martin Marprelate

Well-Known Member
Site Supporter
With regard to us being 'slaves of Christ,' I think it's helpful to crunch verses like Exod 21:5-6; Psalm 40:6-8 and Phil 2:5-8 together. Christians are willing slaves or bondservants of Christ, for we say, 'His yoke is easy and His burden is light.'

Steve
 

InTheLight

Well-Known Member
Site Supporter
the Niv was no less/more "homosexual" than any other English version!

I think the KJV goes light on homosexuality. Just compare 1 Cor. 6:9:

9 Know ye not that the unrighteous shall not inherit the kingdom of God? Be not deceived: neither fornicators, nor idolaters, nor adulterers, nor effeminate, nor abusers of themselves with mankind, [KJV]

9 Or do you not know that wrongdoers will not inherit the kingdom of God? Do not be deceived: Neither the sexually immoral nor idolaters nor adulterers nor men who have sex with men, [NIV]


KJV: "abusers of themselves with mankind" Talk about obfuscation. What does that mean?

NIV: "men who have sex with men" Clear, concise, no room for misinterpretation.
 

DaChaser1

New Member
Phillip, thank you for your reply.

First, I'm NOT a scholar, as it's often defined. I'm just a lay person trying to learn more about both what's in the scriptures and how they came about. In my study, I've run across the issue of the "original manuscripts" many times. Sometimes the points being made are valid. At others the term is just a smoke screen. The "original manuscripts" don't exist. Period. Even, the first set of the 10 commandments were destroyed. Other examples of destruction of the original documents is recorded in the scriptures themselves.

I beg to disagree with any Bibical Scholar who claims any percentage of either the OT or the NT is the "original". I'm trying to be careful here and not read into your words more than you intend. And, further, I'd like to be corrected if the following statement isn't true.

There isn't a shard of clay, piece of parchment, scroll of papyrus, or any other means of recording words in existence that were touched by the hands of the authors of the books of the Bible. Copies, yes. Numerous copies, in some cases, yes. God did promise to preserve His word.

Here's the quandry, in layman's terms, as I understand it. I've picked a chapter in the Bible, at random, to make the point. The numbers used are not actual. Daniel Chapter 11.

Thus far there are 20 manuscripts in existance that agree with each other on the text they contain. There are 5 manuscripts that have slight variations with the 20. And, there are 2 manuscripts that have major variations.

Bible translators have all 27 texts in front of them to be translated into English. Additionally, they have the works of others who have done some or all of the translation of Daniel 11 at an earlier point in time.

Translation team A's completed work is based primarly on the 20 that are in agreement. Plus, studying the works of those preceeding them, and reviewing any available texts that were not included in the final product.

Translation team B's completed work is centered on the 2 manuscripts that have material disagreement with the majority of the copies of the "originals".

If your life depended on chosing which completed translation of Daniel chapter 11, is God's preserved word, which one would you choose? Where the two translations are in agreement, there is no problem. God's preserved word is in both of them. But, your life depends on knowing the truth for all of Daniel 11.

IMHO, this is the quandry. This is the arguement that's been brewing since 1881 with most "modern" translations. It's not about the "originals" as they don't exist. It's whether we choose to support the impact that Hort and Westcott had with their choices of manuscripts, or not, for English bibles.

Again, IMHO, debates over the correct spelling of Savior vs Saviour, while important on some levels, are immaterial when compared to doctrine differences resulting from the choices made by translation teams A & B.

In closing, these comments are just a layman's observations for whatever they may be worth.

based upon the fact that we DO indeed have in any greek text chosen to use as a translation basis "enough" of the originals to have it able to be said that they would indeed be the word of God to us today!

And ANY version based upon any of those texts would indded be the word of God to us in english today...

And regardless of the Greek text used, NO major doctrinal differences!
 

DaChaser1

New Member
I think the KJV goes light on homosexuality. Just compare 1 Cor. 6:9:

9 Know ye not that the unrighteous shall not inherit the kingdom of God? Be not deceived: neither fornicators, nor idolaters, nor adulterers, nor effeminate, nor abusers of themselves with mankind, [KJV]

9 Or do you not know that wrongdoers will not inherit the kingdom of God? Do not be deceived: Neither the sexually immoral nor idolaters nor adulterers nor men who have sex with men, [NIV]


KJV: "abusers of themselves with mankind" Talk about obfuscation. What does that mean?

NIV: "men who have sex with men" Clear, concise, no room for misinterpretation.

well...

Those KJVO folks who claim that both Nasb/Niv were satanic versions...

What about that!
 

thomas15

Well-Known Member
..........In closing, these comments are just a layman's observations for whatever they may be worth.

The KJVO theory states that the KJV is the only accurate translation of the Holy Bible in the English language. Some of these individuals even suggest that the KJV is the only accurate translation in any language and even more accurate than any greek manuscript or collection of manuscripts. Those induviduals believe that the Anglican translators of the KJV were guided by the Holy Spirit to correct and with the aid of many translation revisors thru the years they have given English speaking persons the pure Word of God, correcting the mistakes in the greek used to make their translation!

I, like you make no claims to membership in club scholarship, however I decided to return to college part time to work towards another degree. Tonight is actually my first class! Algebra and Biology are my life for the moment but before I could register, the college made me take a placement test.

I studied like a banchie to prepare for the algebra aspect but totally neglected the reading/writing. Keeping in mind that I graduated in 1981 with a B.S. in education, I scored 99 in both reading and writing. So, if nothing else I can make the claim that I have basic reading comprehension skills in English. And yet I find reading the KJV is be quite labor intensive and when my study takes me to the KJV, I find that I get less insights from it as compared to the NIV, NKJV or the NASB.

I know that I leave myself open to attacks that I'm an elitist or snob or discounter of the minisrty of the HS but literally within walking distance from my house is a Baptist KJVO church. And yet I choose to drive 50 miles round trip to a different assembly because I find a lack of depth in the doctrinal teaching at the local assembly, KJVO not withstanding.

There are places in the KJV that could be considered dynamic equivatents when compared to the MS used by the 17th century translators. Sometimes we just have to place a little bit of faith in the translators work. That is why comparing translations one next to the other is a good practice for those mining the scriptures for truth. Those who advocate the virtues of the KJV over all other translations should, but are not, advocators of a movement to restore 17th century reading comprehension skills to those who, in their opinions, are interested in serious Bible study using the KJV.

on edit: I just ordered (like I need another Bible!) a 1984 NIV Cambridge Pitt Minion from CBD taking advantage of one of those "WOW" price offers. I like the NIV but have them all.
 
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