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Amy.G said:I have yet to see anything in this thread that proves that the NKJV is less accurate than the KJV. :sleeping_2:
Ok. Now I'm convinced. :laugh:Thinkingstuff said:Here is proof. The 1611 KJV spells words like old - olde and the NKJV spells it old. Or does it spell it Aulde?:laugh:
HankD said:Which is superior and why?
Chaucer: Tales of Caunterbury
Whan that Aprill, with his shoures soote
The droghte of March hath perced to the roote
And bathed every veyne in swich licour,
Of which vertu engendred is the flour;
5 Whan Zephirus eek with his sweete breeth
Inspired hath in every holt and heeth
The tendre croppes, and the yonge sonne
Hath in the Ram his halfe cours yronne,
And smale foweles maken melodye,
10 That slepen al the nyght with open eye-
(So priketh hem Nature in hir corages);
Thanne longen folk to goon on pilgrimages
And palmeres for to seken straunge strondes
To ferne halwes, kowthe in sondry londes;
15 And specially from every shires ende
Of Engelond, to Caunterbury they wende,
The hooly blisful martir for to seke
That hem hath holpen, whan that they were seeke.
Bifil that in that seson, on a day,
Modern translation:
When in April the sweet showers fall
That pierce March's drought to the root and all
And bathed every vein in liquor that has power
To generate therein and sire the flower;
5 When Zephyr also has with his sweet breath,
Filled again, in every holt and heath,
The tender shoots and leaves, and the young sun
His half-course in the sign of the Ram has run,
And many little birds make melody
10 That sleep through all the night with open eye
(So Nature pricks them on to ramp and rage)
Then folk do long to go on pilgrimage,
And palmers to go seeking out strange strands,
To distant shrines well known in distant lands.
15 And specially from every shire's end
Of England they to Canterbury went,
The holy blessed martyr there to seek
Who helped them when
Precisely.Thinkingstuff said:I don't get your point. Sorry. How I see it kind of like this:
Hey stilllearning,stilllearning said:... As for why, all of us should use the KJV as a point of reference...... (Here is a good reason!)
I found the quotation from a source. The KJV and the NKJV used a same Greek text. That is not completely true.Logos1560 said:Is that accusation based on D. A. Waite's misleading claims? It is not been proven that the NKJV used any non-TR text in the New Testament.
The differences can be differences in the translating of the same underlying texts. There are the same type differences between the KJV and the pre-1611 English Bibles that were all based on the same texts. The early English translators and the KJV translators probably had as many differences in translating as you can find between the KJV translators and the NKJV translators.
To change from a word to a different word. That is D.E. Reverence God? Absolutely NOT!Ed Edwards said:The Hebrew reading is 'sold'. The “which hath been sold unto thee” is a way we could say it in English. The nKJV is the superior English usage in the 20th century (1901-2000) saying “which hath been sold to him”
Interesting entries in the online American Heritage Dictionary under first "helpmeet" and then "helpmate"(my bold)--AntennaFarmer said:... Have a look at the oed.com entry under helpmeet (one word) for some interesting perspective...
It seems the AV may have followed the Geneva construction at Genesis 2:18 --annsni said:... Would you like to take a stab at how the KJV ends up with "help meet"?
Why do you need to "get the point". I asked for an assessment.Thinkingstuff said:I don't get your point. Sorry. How I see it kind of like this:
HankD said:Why do you need to "get the point". I asked for an assessment.
OK though I'll explain the point since it seems to have gotten buried in the responses:
I answered a question with a question.
askjo claimed the KJV translation was "superior" to the NKJV.
I was trying to determine his criteria.
One of them must surely be understandability.
I was trying to get him to admit that the NKJV is more understandable than the KJV in many places.
Through no fault of the KJV translators.
The passage of time brings with it changes of syntax, grammar and spelling in any living language, nonetheless the differences are there.
Therefore "Understandability" is a factor. Whether it makes the NKJV superior to the KJV is debatable.
That is the point as this is a debate forum.
askjo claims that the KJV is superior to the NKJV and I provided places where it is just the opposite in terms of understandability.
HankD
Amy.G said:Which is more accurate?
KJV
Act 7:45 Which also our fathers that came after brought in with Jesus into the possession of the Gentiles, whom God drave out before the face of our fathers, unto the days of David;
NKJV
Act 7:45 "which our fathers, having received it in turn, also brought with Joshua into the land possessed by the Gentiles, whom God drove out before the face of our fathers until the days of David,
KJV
Hbr 4:8 For if Jesus had given them rest, then would he not afterward have spoken of another day.
NKJV
Hbr 4:8 For if Joshua had given them rest, then He would not afterward have spoken of another day.
Yes. I realize that, but taken in context, the two verses I posted are speaking of the person, "Joshua" from the OT, not Jesus the Messiah. It should read "Joshua".Thinkingstuff said:Actually the name Jesus and Joshua are interchangable. In hebrew Joshua is Yeshua which is also the name of Jesus. Yeshua Ha Meshiach. Or Joshua the Messiah or Jesus the Messiah. Yeshua was a popular name as Cameron discovered recently on his attempt to claim Jesus was still in his grave. I don't have a problem it put either way.