And no answer from Alan Gross whatsoever to the fact that "Easter" in the KJV is an anachronism. Not being a linguist or translator, perhaps he did not understand my point.
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Very simple. Luke used pascha in Acts 12:4, the same word he used for passover in other passages. In his time, pascha meant only passover. And EASTER DIDN'T THEN EXIST ! No such thing as a pagan Easter! Remember, Caesar sent Herod to PLEASE the Jews. Whcacing James pleased them, so se sought to please them more by letting them dom as they wished with Peter. He knew the Jews wouldn't handle him during Passover Week, so he intended to detain Peter til passover ended. No Easter had anything to do with it !
"Easter" in Acts 12:4 is a goof in the KJV that KJVOs won't admit to !
As a linguist I have to interrupt this discussion
to say "Easter" in the KJV is technically an anachronism.
This is a word or phrase from more modern times
put back into a time when it did not exist.
In other words, the holiday that we call "Easter"
did not exist in the first century,
though Christ had risen from the dead.
So, were the KJV translators right or wrong to render it "Easter"?
That depends on your linguistic position.
Is it okay to translate 1st century words
with anachronisms, or not?
@Alan Gross.
Nothing in the long post you wrote changes
the fact the "Easter" in the KJV is an anachronism.
It may have been used in later centuries,
but nothing you wrote says the word existed in Greek
in the first century.
Should pasxa (πάσχα) have been rendered as "Easter" in the KJV?
That is a different issue, and I have not commented on that.
If the first mention of the word in history is from the 8th century,
"Easter" is still an anachronism when used in the Bible-
-8th to 1st century anachronism, perhaps,
but still an anachronism.
And no answer from Alan Gross whatsoever to the fact
that "Easter" in the KJV is an anachronism.
Not being a linguist or translator,
perhaps he did not understand my point.
And no answer from Alan Gross
whatsoever to the fact that "Easter" in the KJV
No such thing as pagan Easter?
In a note in one edition, Alexander Hislop wrote:
“Every one knows that the name ‘Easter,‘
used in our translation of Acts 12:4,
refers not to any Christian festival, but to the Jewish Passover”
(The Two Babylons, p. 104).
As a linguist, are you accustom to researching definitions of words
technically, for example, "an anachronism"?
Again, what are you talking about. Do you have a different definition of anachronism? If so, trot it out.There must be an assumption for an anachronism to be thought to be(?):
"a word or phrase from more modern times
put back into a time when it did not exist".
You're odd to me, too.Uhmm. Odd to me.
Please prove to me your contention that there was a holiday named "Easter" in the first century. Simply disagreeing with me assumes too much.Sure, it did. What's the matter with you?
In logic, this is the fallacy called the appeal to authority. It proves nothing.My linguistic position is the the World Class KJV translators'
astute grammatical command linguistically
and sophistication regarding Historical dynamics has No Equal.
Such as "Easter."Such as what one, for instance?
As a linguist and Bible translator, a professor of Bible translation, I actually was able to make that judgment myself, believe it or not.Who told you, "the fact the "Easter" in the KJV is an anachronism"?
Maybe, if you put me in touch with them, I could get somewhere with this.
Well of course. I don't think I was obtuse.Are you saying that you believe
that "Easter" in the KJV is an anachronism?
Nothing I've seen you write has suggested to me that you are a linguist or Bible translator, but I'd be happy to be proven wrong. Are you a linguist and/or Bible translator?You don't know what I am?
Really???? Wow! What's the deal here?And you need to back off.
Simply WRONG.And CAIN married a relative! Simple as that! LOL
Glad to see you finally admit it!Simply WRONG.
Yes, your assumption is wrong.Glad to see you finally admit it!
Where does the KJV say Cain married a relative ?Glad to see you finally admit it!
Where does the KJV say Cain married a relative ?
Same for me about you, as you believe Godallowed incest between full siblings at one time, then changed His mind & banned it. Scripture says God doesn't change. And you also seem to believe the man-made KJVO myth.Roby, we've been through all this before. Your claim is that God created a whole different race of people for Cain to get a wife from which is totally, highly unbiblical! Where in the world, from Scripture, did you ever get an idea like that? God did not condemn incest until much later in human history. God created Adam and Eve, and the Bible clearly states that Eve is the mother of all living! Cain married either a sister, a niece......in other words, a relative. You don't believe that, which is why I find anything you post irrelevant since you have way too many unbiblical ideas.
Same for me about you, as you believe Godallowed incest between full siblings at one time, then changed His mind & banned it. Scripture says God doesn't change. And you also seem to believe the man-made KJVO myth.