I come back to John 1:1, "Ἐν ἀρχῇ ἦν ὁ λόγος, καὶ ὁ λόγος ἦν πρὸς τὸν θεόν, καὶ θεὸς ἦν ὁ λόγος."
There are some very important truths in this verse on the Godhead, and the Two Persons mentioned here.
In the first place we have the words, "Ἐν ἀρχῇ", "in the beginning". This is not referring to the same "beginning" as found in Genesis 1:1, when Elohim began the creation of the universe. The words in John 1:1, go back to eternity past, as creation is mentioned later in verse 3. This is what Jesus meant in John 17:5, "And now, O Father, glorify thou me with thine own self with the glory which I had with thee before the world was", where He speaks of His eternal Glory with He shared with the Father, "from eternity past". This clause thus affirms the eternity of The Word, the Lord Jesus Christ.
Secondly, we then read that this "Word", Who is from eternity, and therefore uncreated, is "with God". This tells us two things. That the Logos is not the "God" mentioned in this clause, and, that He is a distinct Person from this "God". This is clear from the use of the definite Greek article (ὁ and τὸν), which in this sentence, shows that there cannot be one Person that is meant, Also, we have the Greek preposition, "πρὸς", (with), which has the meanings, "along with", "in the presence of", "besides", etc. Again, showing distinction is meant.
Thirdly, in the final sentence, John writes, "καὶ θεὸς ἦν ὁ λόγος.". Those like the Jehovah's Witnesses, for their theological bias against Jesus as Yahweh, have rendered this, "and the Logos was a god". This is not what the Greek says here. They argue, with not grammatical justification, that, had John wished to write, "and the Logos was God", that he would have written in the Greek, "καὶ ὁ θεὸς ἦν ὁ λόγος.", where the Greek article "ὁ" is also used with "God". As I said, the JW's do so, not because the Greek grammar says so, but they cannot admit that the Bible does teach that Jesus is Almighty God. As things stand in this verse in the Greek, John could not have written, "καὶ ὁ θεὸς ἦν ὁ λόγος.", for two reasons. 1. had John written, "and the Word was the God", this would have made the nouns here convertible, that is, that he would have made "the Word" to be "the God", both would be identical Persons, and all of God would be only in the Word! 2. by writing "καὶ ὁ θεὸς ἦν ὁ λόγος.", John would have also made nonsense of his previous words, "καὶ ὁ λόγος ἦν πρὸς τὸν θεόν", because here he shows that "the Word" and "the God", were not one and the same person, as one is said to be WITH the other!
Here we have very clear teaching of the Godhead, where Two distinct (not separate) Persons are shown, Who are EQUALLY Almighty God!