I read his articles on line. He has articles on the sacraments that are posted on line. Wright says that "works are done not to earn privilege, but to demonstrate it, they are an attempt to confine grace to one race." He made this statement in reference to Romans and Paul's view of justification without works. This statement by Wright shows that he either does not understand Romans 4:1-5 or does understand it and is intentionally perverting the contextual meaning of works in that passage. Works in that passage predates Israel or the Law and therefore cannot be defined as Wright defines them. Abraham's work prior to his justification is the subject in Romans 4:1-5, therefore the nature of those works cannot possible be restricted or confined to Israel or the Mosaic Law. Paul's definition of works is simply anything and everything that is associated with your internal or external actions regardless if is before or after justification. Jesus defines evil works beginning internally with wrong "thoughts" that are externally manifested in wrong words and actions, and the reverse is true of "good" works. Like the Seventh Day Adventists, Wright defines "good" works that ultimately justify us as products of the Holy Spirit and His progressive sanctification thus confusing justification, which is based solely and only on the works performed in the physical body of Christ on earth without any kind of assoication with us other than representative. Justification is imputation not impartation of Christ's righteousness, whereas progressive sanctification is impartation not imputation of Christ's righteousness. There was no vitriol in my statement. It was pure conviction being stated in the strongest terms. I have no personal animosity toward Wright, but I wholly despise his views.
It would be extremely helpful if you not only quoted him but also provided the link of the quotation.
I humbly request that because I suspect he is not talking about Rom 4 but Rom 2. And I think he may be presenting the arguments of Judaism of his day ("attempt to confine grace to one race"). If that is the case, then it appears you don't understand him at all, as I have accused.
But this can be cleared up with a link or citation to this quote.
EDIT:
So I checked, and as I suspected, you misrepresented and misunderstand Wright's statement. You even misquoted him!!! This kind of false representation is in the same vein as Gail Riplinger's attempts to smear in her terrible books. I would encourage you to be more judicious in your quoting and understanding of Wright.
Now here is the entire quote in context from "Justification: The Biblical Basis and its Relevance for Contemporary Evangelicalism" (accessed:
http://ntwrightpage.com/Wright_Justification_Biblical_Basis.pdf)
NT Wright said:
Second, God has renounced all partiality, and made one way of salvation for all men alike. 46 Justification by faith therefore eliminates boasting (3:27-31) not the boasting of the legalist earning his own salvation (though it eliminates that too), but that of the Jew, as in 2:17 ff. If this is not so, the question of 3:29 ('Is God the God of the Jews only?') is a total non sequitur. 'Works' are done not to earn privilege but to demonstrate it: they are the attempt to confine grace to one race. But the Gospel presents Israel with the knowledge that all alike have sinned, 47 and with the fact of a crucified Messiah, who spells death to nationalistic pride. The Gospel is revealed 'apart from the [Jewish] law' (3:21), since only so could it benefit both Gentiles (who do not possess the law) and Jews (who stand convicted by it).
As I thought, this isn't about Romans 4, but it began with Romans 2 and mainly 3.
Second, he clearly admits "justification by faith". However, his understanding of justification as it pertains to those in the Judaizer camp is that Jews access the promises of Abraham through their physical decent. Thus they boast in their ethnic heritage. Therefore, the works they perform are not a means of attaining their status as the people of God but of demonstrating their status. This is not what Wright believes but explaining what many Jews of Paul's day believed!
Third, with that context in mind, Wright's statement (quoted correctly with scare quotes and a colon), the "works" performed by the Jews in order to demonstrate their ethnic status in Abraham and thus boast is an attempt to confine grace to Jews only and not Gentiles. Thus this paragraph began with removing ethnic partiality with God providing salvation to all mankind.
Lastly, the only thing you would probably object to is that Wright claims Paul is not arguing against legalism in Romans. But that hardly makes him a heretic.
