Ok, define Easter

Luke 22:1
Now the feast of unleavened bread drew nigh,
which is called the Passover.

 

Sorry You are wrong. Although the King James Version is the only Bible that correctly transaltes Easter, the real menaing behind the word Easter is a pagan Holiday to the female Deity known as Ishtar or sometime Ashtaroth. It has nothing to do with passover for why would King Herod be recognizing a Jewish Holiday? If Peter was captured during the days of unleavened bread, Passover would have done occured.

 

Frank Betz: Yes, Logos, we all KNOW that "pascha" means Passover.

First: answer us WHEN Passover begane, and WHEN it ended?

According to GOD'S COMMAND, it began on the 14th day of the month Nisan on the Israeli calendar. Jesus' last one began on Tuesday.

Hint:Saturday

Yes, the paschal lamb meal does sometimes fall on Saturday.

Second: When did Jesus meet with His disciples?

Hint: The FIRST day of the week.

Third: What day does Easter fall on?

Hint: SUNDAY!!

Nothing to do with Passover, except that Passover Week was still ongoing.

Fourth: In Roman business concerning governement and days of execution, what day is explicitly OFF-LIMITS concerning public executions?

Hint: SUNDAY!!!

Yes, Sunday was a day sacred to Apollo in the Roman pantheon of gods.

Thus Herod would have waited until AFTER EASTER to have Peter put to death, after Passover/Days of Unleavened Bread, thus this is UNDERSTOOD to be chronologiacally CORRECT, that the KJB is CORRECT when the translators CORRECTLY included the CHRISTIAN FEAST known to all as the Day Christ Rose from the DEAD!!!

What a joke. Easter didn't exist then.

But then you people will still OBJECT!!!

OF COURSE we will, when someone posts something as far from the truth as you have above.

Acts 12 makes perfect reference to the Passover, then continues with the rest of the TRUTH, Herod waited until after EASTER/ Sunday, to "attempt" to put Peter to death.

What a maroon!

Get it through your thick skull, Frank...EASTER DID NOT EXIST WHEN LUKE WROTE ACTS! Search any encyclopedia or reputable history book you like. resurrection Day was bot observed until around 155 AD, while Luke wrote between 59 & 62 AD. And the name Easter wasn't applied to Resurrection Day until the 300s AD.

I waited for anyone to come this same conclusion, but you people are LACKING!! [Laugh]

BTW, Passover and Easter are RELATED, first the seven days of unleavened bread, then the FULFILLMENT of ALL Ceremonial Laws, Easter/ The Resurrection!!!

Scripture, please.

If Christ be not raised: (those who demand that Easter not be correct) then are ye yet dead in your sins.

Now you're ADDING to Scripture.


Or would you like to reconsider the FACTS?? Of course you can keep hanging onto that false assumption that there is "something wrong with the KJB".

It's not an assumption...it's a PROVEN FACT. And that isn't the ONLY booboo in the KJV.

BTW, Frank...

I asked you a few days ago, "When did GOD say "for ever" and not mean it? Answer, please?

 

Actually, Benaiah, the KJV is the ONLY currently-used English Bible that incorrectly says Easter. Neither you nor Frank can understand that EASTER DID NOT EXIST in Luke's time or place!

And you may search every reputable reference work there is, and you will see the Greek word pascha has NEVER been associated with Ishtar as DCas pointed out above, nor with Venus/Pallas Athene Minerva. It's a Greek transliteration of the Hebrew pesach, which means Passover and nothing else. It meant Passover alone in Luke's day.

American businessmen, when dealing with Moslem businessmen, respect Ramadan as observed by those Muslims while not participating themselves. Thus was Herod doing with Passover.

 

Actually, folks, Easter is my mother! The year Mom was born, April 1 and Easter Sunday fell on the same day, so guess what her parents named her? Yep...

Seriously, a check with Strong's reveals that the Greek pascha appears 29 times in the New Testament, and in only one instance is it translated as Easter (Acts 12:4 KJV). The argument that the word Easter is the correct translation because of the time it was written (after Jesus' sacrifice) doesn't stand up because pascha appears in 1 Cor 5:7 and Heb 11:28, placing the use of the word after the events related in Acts.

Strong's defines pascha as:

1. The paschal sacrifice
2. The paschal lamb
3. The paschal supper
4. The paschal feast

Never did the word pascha mean "Easter." The KJV translators made an unfortunate choice of words in Acts 12:4, that's all. I can understand the error, as Easter was not unknown by the time the KJV was translated, but its use in Acts 12:4 was not at all correct. At the time Acts was written. the Jews were allowed to celebrate their religious observances, and a ruling governor should have been sensitive to the beliefs of the prople he was ruling. Thus Passover would have been the better word selection for Acts 12:4. The Douay-Rheims uses the word pasch, and the CEV uses "the festival," but all other currently-used English translations I have found correctly use Passover in Acts 12:4.

 

Acts 12:4 -- Passover or Easter?

KJV - Easter

Modern versions - Passover

Which is right?

Let me ask you a simple question:

Was Herod involved in the passover?

 

Did you ignore the fact that the 1560 Geneva Bible (one of the early English Bibles of which the KJV is a revision) has passover at Acts 12:4?

Did you notice the context that Herod saw that his actions pleased the Jews and then that he proceeded further with more actions to please them? Do you think that Herod supposedly waiting until after some "pagan" holiday would please the Jews? The verses do not say or demand that Herod had to be observing the passover (although I think this Herod was known to observe some Jewish traditions), but indicate that he was waiting for the sake of the people [referring to the Jews]. Luke, the author of the book of Acts, used the Greek word translated "passover" to include the days of unleavened bread (Luke 22:1 clearly shows this). There is no problem at all with translating the Greek word in this verse with its usual accurate meaning--passover. "Easter" was left in the KJV at Acts 12:4 from the Bishops' Bible. The earlier English Bibles had had "Easter" at several verses for the Jewish passover. As noted before, the 1535 Coverdale's Bible even had "Easter" instead of "passover" at several Old Testament verses.

 

Askjo: Acts 12:4 -- Passover or Easter?

KJV - Easter

Modern versions - Passover

Which is right?

Let me ask you a simple question:

Was Herod involved in the passover?

Simple answer: No...

But he respected the Jews' observation of it, same as Christians respect the Muslims'observation of Ramadan w/o oberrving it themselves. For example, a Christian oil broker is NOT gonna try to do business with a Moslem oil seller while Ramadan is in progress. Likewise, the Moslem won't try to do business with a Jew on Saturday or a Christian on Sunday.

Herod was trying to PLEASE the Jews, and nothing woulda DISpleased them more than to have their holy observance interrupted by a non-Jewish Roman puppet.

Simple question, Askjo...Was Herod involved in EASTER?

 

So far, Mr. Betz and Benaiah like to ASK questions, but not ANSWER any.

 

I have 1557 Geneva New Testament having "Easter" on Acts 12:4.

Well, was Herod a Jew? If so, it would say, "passover." If not, it is Easter.

Easter and passover coincide regarding to a Greek word. However their meaning is different.

Interesting information! I will check later.

 

I agree with you!

Yes, was Herod a Jew?

 

The 1557 Whittingham's New Testament is considered the work of one man--William Whittingham. It is sometimes called the Geneva N. T. and was reprinted in the 1841 ENGLISH HEXAPLA, but it is different from the 1560 Geneva Bible. The 1560 Geneva Bible was the work of
several translators including Whittingham, Thomas Sampson, Anthony Gilby, Christopher Goodman, William Cole, and others.

The 1535 Coverdale's Bible is available online
at studylight.org as is a copy of a 1587 edition
of the Geneva Bible. If you do a search for the word "Easter" in the Coverdale's Bible, it will list 53 verses.

If you look up "Easter" in the multi-volume
OXFORD ENGLISH DICTIONARY, it will list a second meaning "2. The Jewish passover (obsolete)"
(Vol. 5, p. 37). As examples of this meaning for
"Easter," Ezekiel 45:21 in Coverdale's Bible is
given and the last example is "1611 Bible Acts 12:4."

 

Let me ask you a question, Askjo: If you went to France, and you were telling a Frencman that something happened on France's Bastille Day, would you use the term Bastille Day in relating the story? Of course you would! It would make no sence at all to do otherwise. The same is true for Passover in Acts 12:4 - it makes absolutely NO SENSE to use the incorrect word Easter. No sense at all. There is no textual reason for the use of Easter in Acts 12:4. Why can't you accept this truth????? Even the KJV translators admitted that their translation is not perfect, so why is it that you cannot accept this? The KJV translators made an error when they translated "pascha" as "Easter!"

 

Simple question, Askjo...Was Herod involved in EASTER?

Yes, was Herod a Jew?

No...but how was he involved in Easter when it didn't then exist?

 

Let me ask you you 2 questions:

When did the Easter occur?

When did the passover occur?

 

Answer me first, Askjo.

 

I agree with you.

Easter and passover coincide a Greek word, "pascha." According to a Greek dictionary, Pascha means Easter and passover.

Turm to you, please answer my 2 questions in my last post.

 

Askjo: Easter and passover coincide a Greek word, "pascha." According to a Greek dictionary, Pascha means Easter and passover.

This has nothing to do with what I asked. I asked, "How was Herod involved in Easter when it didn't exist in his time?"I believe the rest of the readership here sees it's useless to Askjo because Jo won't answer.

Turm to you, please answer my 2 questions in my last post.

Askjo, you didn't answer my question at all...You failed to deal with the fact that EASTER DIDN'T EXIST in Luke's time. However, as a foe of KJVOism, I have answers of TRUTH to any KJVO legit questions.

You asked..."When did Easter occur?"

It occurs on the first Sunday following the first full moon on or after the spring equinox.

You asked,"When did Passover occur?"

Passover Week begins on the evening of the 14th day of the month Nisan on the Jewish calendar.

Now...Care to try to deal with the fact that EASTER DIDN'T EXIST when Luke wrote Acts?