I think we really have a disagreement about how to interpret the Bible here and we'd probably need to discuss that before we discussed the meaning of any prophetic passage.
The best way to understand a statement is to take it in its immediate context and work outward from there. You seem to be taking a macro view as the priority, instead.
For instance, if a man is a cuisine writer for a newspaper, he might make frequent use of the word "cupcake". However, if you picked up a letter that he wrote his wife, his use of the word "cupcake" might be totally unrelated to the way he uses it in his work, though the context of each kind of writing will make his meaning clear.
In the scriptures, a writer's use of a word or phrase should be determined primarily from the context. Once that is determined, then the big themes that extend accross the Bible become apparent.
Reading the meaning of the parable of the wheat/tares into prophetic passages as an overarching theme of meaning seems like an arbitrary choice to me. Given the number of parables Jesus told, what is the reasoning for making that particular parable the thematic guide? I don't think such a use is justified.
Well, thanks for the interaction. You seem like a serious student in all of this and what I have brought up in this post is probably off-topic for the thread, so I digress.
As far as interpretation is concerned I believe context, cross-reference, and that "macro view" are to be used. I believe I have already demonstrated my use of the first two. BTW, I never mean to say that we overlook these things. Speaking of overlook - we need to also add the study of terms (STOICHEIA, for instance) and (to a lesser degree) historical setting.
But over all in importance of these four we listed is the overarching macro view. And this is where, I believe, your cupcake comparison doesn't stand. The macro view of the Bible is that it testifies of Christ. This is the foundation of the OT and the New.
"And beginning at Moses and all the prophets, he expounded unto them in all the scriptures the things concerning himself." Luke 24:27
It is isn't that every single Old Testament verse has Christ in it, but that they all point to Him, underscore the need for Him, and for the New Covenant in His blood.
Herein is the (what I perceive to be, at least) the distinctive difference between Dispensationalists (for want of a better term) and non-disps: We tend to see Christ in many more places than Disps do. Where we see Christ thy often see Jews. In one place (Dan. 9:26) we see Christ and they see Antichrist. We also tend to see the finished work of Christ in the OT in many places where they see either endtimes or Millennial fulfillment.
There is this difference with the "cupcake husband's" words and that of the Bible: The husband, like all humans, lacks, to a consistent degree, a concentrated theme in his life. But God - in His book - does concentrate on what is truly important. I am so glad that not every stupid and idle word of mine in my life is recorded. There is a lot of junk there. But this is not the case with the OT. There is, thus, a correspondingly much greater economy of terminology and consistency of theme.
It is the knowledge of this theme that overrides all other methods of parsing out the text. I start first with the assumption: Christ is here somewhere - by prophecy, teaching, type, parallel, etc. I know, speaking of Isaiah again, that i will encounter Christ here in many places - so I look for Him. I also look for His work to be described - the outworking of the New Covenant.
This assumption BTW is what finally led me to realize that there is no reason, no purpose, no place (al three of these) for the supposed Millennial Kingdom with all of its sacrifices and other trappings. The thoroughly finished work of Christ combined with the once-for-all obliteration of the inner wall of partition does away with the need for it.
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