Same here, however:
Logic does not allow for God to know and have always known all there is to ever know about everything and AT THE SAME TIME to be able to be informed by another.
What if I said....as a Marginal Molinist...no, temporally, logic would not allow for such, but, in the same "logical moment" <----confusion is in the word "moment" it isn't descriptive of linear time...God might in the same "logical moment" do such a thing....
No B.S. here:
nothing can be both A and not-A in the same relationship...so also the unexcluded middle...in the same relationship.
But God's dealings with man are not in the same relationship as the whollistic perfection of all of God's perfect knowledge in the God-head...there were things that Christ CLEARLY said (as a full member of the God-head) that he simply did not "KNOW"...at least temporally. Only "THE FATHER KNOWETH".... We have no choice but to accept that as true and work our Philosophical and Theological pre-suppositions around that revelation. To wit:
Mar 13:32 ¶ But of that day and [that] hour knoweth no man, no, not the angels which are in heaven, neither the Son, but the Father
Repeatedly...We find Christ Divinely knowing things that only a full member of the God-head in perfect Omniscience would know...such as the thoughts of men's hearts...and yet we also find Christ (as a man) having weaknesses and simply lacking certain knowledge that only the Father (possibly the Spirit) was privy to.
God could not involuntarily "starve to death"...but neither could he become as a man... and live forever without food...otherwise, Jesus' temptation in the wilderness was meaningless and he simply never was "In all was tempted such as we"... THAT woul be illogical (because it would exist in the same relationship)....
However, as a man, a full member of the God-head COULD do those very things apparently:
1.) Not know some things
2.) Starve to death
3.) be tempted
This is NOT illogical, because this was not a Supreme being condescending "IN THE SAME RELATIONSHIP"...as he presumably interracts with the whole of the rest of creation....
We have two contra-distinctive (but not contradictory) concepts, BOTH of which are true:
1.) God CANNOT be tempted:
1.) Jam 1:13 Let no man say when he is tempted, I am tempted of God: for God cannot be tempted with evil, neither tempteth he any man:
2.) Christ (who was God) CAN be tempted, and was:
Hbr 2:18 For in that he himself hath suffered being tempted, he is able to succour them that are tempted.
Hbr 4:15 For we have not an high priest which cannot be touched with the feeling of our infirmities; but was in all points tempted like as [we are, yet] without sin.
Is this illogical?
NO...It is not possible that God BOTH Can and Cannot be tempted...In the same relationship...but what we learn from Scripture is that that relationship when God condescends to man is not the same relationship as is enjoyed in eternal perfection in the wholeness of the God-head.
It is not sufficient to suggest that in EVERY signifigant passage wherein God speaks of himself as having limitations of any sort are merely anthropomorphic...if it's the case...than he actually believes we are more stupid than we really are, and he has erred by over-using that method to such an extent that entirely TOO many of us, have actually taken him literally.
It is heresy to maintain that Christ was not FULLY GOD...similarly...it is also heresy to maintain that he was NOT fully MAN too.
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