Craigbythesea
Well-Known Member
Brother Russ,
Please forgive me for the attitude that I displayed toward you in the SDA thread. I thought that I was dealing with a half-baked potato, but now I see that I am dealing with a man who truly loves the word of God and knows it well.
Heb. 6:4. For in the case of those who have once been enlightened and have tasted of the heavenly gift and have been made partakers of the Holy Spirit,
5. and have tasted the good word of God and the powers of the age to come,
6. and then have fallen away, it is impossible to renew them again to repentance, since they again crucify to themselves the Son of God and put Him to open shame.
7. For ground that drinks the rain which often falls on it and brings forth vegetation useful to those for whose sake it is also tilled, receives a blessing from God;
8. but if it yields thorns and thistles, it is worthless and close to being cursed, and it ends up being burned. (NASB, 1995)
24. Amen amen lego humin hoti ho ton logon mou akouon kai pisteuon to Pempsanti me echei zoen aionion kai eis krisin ouk erchetai, alla metabebeken ek tou thanatou eis ten zoen.
The Greek word metabebeken is a present-perfect verb in the indicative mood and therefore signifies past action that is either continuing into to present or past action that with consequences in the present. The future is never in view in the Greek present-perfect tense.
We have a very similar tense in English—the English present-perfect. For example, in the sentence, “I have been saved,” we have the English present-perfect tense signifying that I was saved in the past and that I am saved in the present.” Apart from theology, and looking only at the English construction, this sentence says absolutely nothing about my being saved in the future. We have precisely the same situation in the Greek New Testament—the future is not in view unless your theology says it is.
Please forgive me for the attitude that I displayed toward you in the SDA thread. I thought that I was dealing with a half-baked potato, but now I see that I am dealing with a man who truly loves the word of God and knows it well.
It is my view that once a person falls from grace, he will never again thirst for God’s Spirit, and that he is beyond redemption.You are correct, I meant to refer to John 4:14, not 4:13. "Whosoever DRINKS (aorist punctilliar one time event) this water will NEVER THIRST."
If one could fall from grace, then this stateement by Jesus would be incorrect because the fallen person would again thirst for God's Spirit.
Heb. 6:4. For in the case of those who have once been enlightened and have tasted of the heavenly gift and have been made partakers of the Holy Spirit,
5. and have tasted the good word of God and the powers of the age to come,
6. and then have fallen away, it is impossible to renew them again to repentance, since they again crucify to themselves the Son of God and put Him to open shame.
7. For ground that drinks the rain which often falls on it and brings forth vegetation useful to those for whose sake it is also tilled, receives a blessing from God;
8. but if it yields thorns and thistles, it is worthless and close to being cursed, and it ends up being burned. (NASB, 1995)
24. "Truly, truly, I say to you, he who hears My word, and believes Him who sent Me, has eternal life, and does not come into judgment, but has passed out of death into life.Craig and DKH
You both missed the part about John 5:24 which is most definitive. "Has crossed over (metabebeeken) is PERFECT TENSE just like "it is written." The PERFECT tense signifies once for all time completed action which stands in the past, present and future. Shame on you, Craig, for not pointing this out -- no dessert tonight.
24. Amen amen lego humin hoti ho ton logon mou akouon kai pisteuon to Pempsanti me echei zoen aionion kai eis krisin ouk erchetai, alla metabebeken ek tou thanatou eis ten zoen.
The Greek word metabebeken is a present-perfect verb in the indicative mood and therefore signifies past action that is either continuing into to present or past action that with consequences in the present. The future is never in view in the Greek present-perfect tense.
We have a very similar tense in English—the English present-perfect. For example, in the sentence, “I have been saved,” we have the English present-perfect tense signifying that I was saved in the past and that I am saved in the present.” Apart from theology, and looking only at the English construction, this sentence says absolutely nothing about my being saved in the future. We have precisely the same situation in the Greek New Testament—the future is not in view unless your theology says it is.
This is merely your interpretation, and a non-historic one at that. There are very many verses in the Bible that refute this point of view, including the passage in Heb. 6 quoted above.When the believer professes faith in Christ in the NOW, God reaches to the end of time and pronounces upon him the VERDICT of the final judgment, which is EVERLASTING LIFE. It would be sily for God to do that if He did not really meant it and would change his verdict.
No, I portray a Christian with a free will to choose this day, and every day, whom he will serve.Your resPonse abouT 1 Cor 6:19,20 is also weak. You portray a puny and weak mortal man overpowering the HOly Spirit and grabbing God's property out of God's hand. Once the body is bought, owned AND INDWELT by God -- why would God allow us to steal HIS PROPERTY?