The point is that, if human choices can be put into an if-then formula, how can it be said that they have libertarian free will? Isn't free will defined such that, given any choice, all things being what they are, the agent could choose otherwise? If so, then the choice cannot be determined by God's foreknowledge nor by any particular circumstances or secondary causes.
I don't know how others define free will, but by free will I do not mean a person can not be influenced, even to a great degree coerced by others. But it can never truly be said that a person's choice can be taken away.
For instance, men in the past were persecuted for refusing to baptize their babies, or for being baptized again. They were threatened with death or imprisonment if they did not "repent". This surely puts an influence upon the will, but many men and women chose to die for what they believed.
I always go back to chess, as I feel it is a simple, but fairly accurate analogy. A good chess player can absolutely control the game and to a great degree his opponent's moves. Nevertheless, his opponent always has free choice where he will move within available options. You cannot take this away from your opponent. Your opponent can make poor choices, but they are still his choices.
Are all (or a majority of) the people of Tyre and Sidon of like mind such that they all react the same way given the if-then conditions? If so, how can one conclude that they have libertarian free will? It seems that their choice is indirectly determined by the conditions; yet, Jesus also held them accountable. Sounds like good ol' compatibilism to me.
Well, I think Jesus was speaking of a majority of the people, but especially the spiritual leaders of the community. However, in the account of Nineveh, it was everyone who repented. Of course, they were led and commanded by the king of Nineveh to repent.
Jon 3:5 So the people of Nineveh believed God, and proclaimed a fast, and put on sackcloth, from the greatest of them even to the least of them.
6 For word came unto the king of Nineveh, and he arose from his throne, and he laid his robe from him, and covered him with sackcloth, and sat in ashes.
7 And he caused it to be proclaimed and published through Nineveh by the decree of the king and his nobles, saying, Let neither man nor beast, herd nor flock, taste any thing: let them not feed, nor drink water:
8 But let man and beast be covered with sackcloth, and cry mightily unto God: yea, let them turn every one from his evil way, and from the violence that is in their hands.
9 Who can tell if God will turn and repent, and turn away from his fierce anger, that we perish not?
Most scripture seems to deal with the leaders of the people. Here the king commanded everyone in the city to repent. So it is fairly safe to assume that he took action to make sure this was done. He might have shut down the taverns and brothels for instance. He may have enforced laws against idol worship. This is speculation on my part, but I think it very reasonable to assume.
Yet, they seem to be determined by God allowing/disallowing the conditions such that they made the choice that God wanted (a negative choice).
If God wanted them to repent, would He not have ensured that the conditions enabled them?
If not, "how could we blame them"? God didn't give them what they needed!
In the case of Saul, it does not make sense (to me) that God would decree that Saul would decide to go down to Keilah, and then forewarn David to overrule his own decree so that Saul would change his mind.
Does that make sense to you? Jesus said if a house is divided against itself, that house cannot stand. So, it does not make sense that God would overrule his own decrees.
I believe God did want Tyre and Sidon to repent, but that does not mean God had to perform miracles for them. Perhaps God felt he had given them sufficient grace to repent.
We see in scripture that God is merciful, but even God has his limits. If a man ignores this grace, at some point God has had enough.
Gen 6:3 And the LORD said, My spirit shall not always strive with man, for that he also is flesh: yet his days shall be an hundred and twenty years.
Rev 2:20 Notwithstanding I have a few things against thee, because thou sufferest that woman Jezebel, which calleth herself a prophetess, to teach and to seduce my servants to commit fornication, and to eat things sacrificed unto idols.
21 And I gave her space to repent of her fornication; and she repented not.
The scriptures say God is longsuffering, but even God has his limit. Yes, God could appear to a man as he did with Saul (Paul), but he is under no obligation to do so. I think Paul was an exception in order to truly show his grace. Paul was just about as sinful as a man could be in that he killed and imprisoned Christians, I believe as God showed his power through Pharaoh, he showed his grace and forgiveness through Paul. So, Paul was exceptional, as was Pharaoh. Pharaoh saw many miracles over many months and did not repent, God was exceptionally patient and longsuffering toward him.
But really, God is very longsuffering toward us all.
Amen! :thumb: It also refutes your view, too.
Well, I don't think you have refuted my view, just disagreed with it. Jesus knew what Tyre and Sidon WOULD have done, so God can foreknow the choices of men, yet they are not determined. If God can only foreknow what he determined, then Tyre and Sidon would have repented. They did not.
The fact is, Tyre and Sidon had the ability to repent, but did not.