Perfection

But we can infer, based on principles and doctrines that *are* found in scripture, whether a view has merit. In scripture, I see the NT quoting the OT in non-word-for-word ways, showing me that the OT they quoted from is not identical to the OT of the KJV. And I see the NT sometimes quoting what we would call a "Masoretic" reading, and sometimes what we would call a "Septuagint" reading, meaning sometimes they quoted from one version, sometimes another. This shows me, *inherent in scripture itself*, the principle that differing versions can both be "the word of God" for it is not the letters that are important as much as the message God is conveying.

Where does this faith come from? Why should someone else start to have this same faith?

 

Already given notice, but I'll extend thread til 9:00 pm Eastern tonight.

 

Consider Hebrews 11:6.

Why indeed!Romans 14:22-23.

 

Consider Hebrews 11:6.

Why indeed!Romans 14:22-23. </font>[/QUOTE]At first glance, neither of these verses have anything to do with the KJV or with Bible versions at all for that matter. Perhaps in my simplicity I have missed something hidden in these verses that really does prove that teh KJV is teh only word of God. Can you please enlighten my feeble mind as to why you listed these verses in support of the KJVO doctrine?

 

No problem, thank-you for your answer. While I don't agree with all of your post, I would agree that the language is much more pure than today's language. See, we can agree on something.

Neal

 

Thank-you, Homebound, for a summary of what you believe and why. I have no problems that your are convicted of this. I appreciate your kind attitude and clear explanation of what you believe.

Neal

 

Reprise the theme song and roll the credits.

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"The Scriptures are the swaddling clothes which are wrapped around our Savior."
--- Charles Haddon Spurgeon