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It called violation of copyright. A person could be prosecuted for such things.Originally posted by James_Newman:
What would happen if I decided to go above the maximum number of words that I was allowed to quote?
Not quite. It would be the same thing is a painter painted a home and someone else in a brochure falsely claimed the job as their's. That happened to me on some jobs. The man did get put in jail for stealing from people before he got far though. So I never pursued the claim I could have had.Originally posted by av1611jim:
I haven't argued against someone making money for their work. In this sense it is no different from a painter getting paid to paint your house. But after the work is done does he continue to get paid? No. But the paint company does by continuing to produce paint. Same thing here.
If true; (I doubt his act caused the Geneva to fade) then King James I & VI was just as wrong as the publishers today.Originally posted by Ransom:
av1611jim asked:
If I have that right, then there is something very WRONG with that notion. Who are these men that they can restrict the use of God's Book like that?
You mean the way James I made it illegal to publish the Bible without the Apocrypha, effectively legislating the Geneva Bible out of existence?
Careful where you point your finger, Jim.
If true; (I doubt his act caused the Geneva to fade) then King James I & VI was just as wrong as the publishers today.Originally posted by av1611jim:
</font><blockquote>quote:</font><hr />Originally posted by Ransom:
av1611jim asked:
If I have that right, then there is something very WRONG with that notion. Who are these men that they can restrict the use of God's Book like that?
You mean the way James I made it illegal to publish the Bible without the Apocrypha, effectively legislating the Geneva Bible out of existence?
Careful where you point your finger, Jim.
This is not the same thing at all. It does not address the question. Did He limit the use of the KJV to the exclusion of all others? I don't think so. He may have limited the publication of it, but can you prove that he said nobody can use any other? And can you prove that he said one can only produce certain portions of it? Or can you prove that he said nobody can use the AV w/o his permission? What has been mentioned is that his "bishop's" made certain limits as to the publication of the bible, which assumes the historical fact that that means they limited the printing of the whole but nothing has been given as to parts of that whole. At the risk of sounding like a parrot, "First source documentation please".Originally posted by Ransom:
av1611jim asked:
Did King James decree that nobody could use the AV except with his permission? I don't think that is historically correct.
Yes, he did. He gave one printer, Robert Barker, a monopoly on printing Bibles. The title page of the New Testament of the 1611 AV contains the words "Cum Privilegio," which means "with privilege" and is the equivalent of a copyright.
This is exactly my point.Originally posted by icthus:
The Bible is the Word of God, and therefore belongs to God alone. No one has the right to copyright any version of the Bible, regardless of what man-made copyright laws there might be.
The Bible clearly says: "freely have you received, freely give"