Philip. 3:12 Not as though I had already attained, either were already perfect: but I follow after, if that I may apprehend that for which also I am apprehended of Christ Jesus.
Paul flatly denies that he has attained being "PERFECT" in spite of the fact that Jesus said "Be ye therefore perfect EVEN AS your father in heaven IS perfect" (Mt. 5:46).
1. So has Christ commanded what even an apostle cannot "attain"?
2. Is the Apostle disobedient to Christ's command?
3. Was Christ defining the true standard of righteousness demanded by the Law of God that no man can PERSONALLY attain outside of glorification?
The second half of the verse demonstrates that in spite of failing to attain being "perfect" that it is still the goal/pursuit/aim of Paul - "but I follow after" demonstrating it is the immutable quest for every true child of God regardless if it can only be attained in glorification.
Paul flatly denies that he has attained being "PERFECT" in spite of the fact that Jesus said "Be ye therefore perfect EVEN AS your father in heaven IS perfect" (Mt. 5:46).
1. So has Christ commanded what even an apostle cannot "attain"?
2. Is the Apostle disobedient to Christ's command?
3. Was Christ defining the true standard of righteousness demanded by the Law of God that no man can PERSONALLY attain outside of glorification?
The second half of the verse demonstrates that in spite of failing to attain being "perfect" that it is still the goal/pursuit/aim of Paul - "but I follow after" demonstrating it is the immutable quest for every true child of God regardless if it can only be attained in glorification.