Sorry, it took so long.
OK so lets all get back to John Chapter 1:1-5
1. In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God. 2. The same was in the beginning with God.
God and the Word are the same:
3. All things were made by him; and without him was not any thing made that was made.
Simply put The word that was with God who is God is the creator.
4. In him was life; and the life was the light of men.
Jesus is the light of men.
5. And the light shineth in darkness; and the darkness comprehended it not.
Commentary:
We know Jesus is the Word and Jesus is God and is Life which is the light of men. Jesus is shinning in this darkness. The darkness does not understand Jesus, the Word, The life, God.
Next:
6. There was a man sent from God, whose name was John.
7. The same came for a witness, to bear witness of the Light, that all men through him might believe.
8. He was not that Light, but was sent to bear witness of that Light.
9. That was the true Light, which lighteth every man that cometh into the world.
10. He was in the world, and the world was made by him, and the world knew him not.
What does it say?
John sent from God. John who is sent form God is a witness to bear witness of the Light. Not the Word, the Word that was with God, who is God, who is Life is not called Light. We know this because of the personal pronoun “him”. John is not the Light. This Light who is the Word, the word that was with God who is God, the Life, the Light “lights every man that comes into the world.” Jesus was in the world that He made and the world did not know him.
(1) We have God, the Word, The Life, The Light, The Creator
(2) We have John,
(3) We have all men,
(4) We have the world that did not know Him
In verse 5 we have darkness that did not understand The Light, and in verse 10 we have the “world” that does not know” the Light.
My take is that the darkness and the world referred to here are the same. The context supports that.
Seems very clear to me. Anyone see anything different. Within these first 10 verses?
Here is the next set of verses:
11. He came unto his own, and his own received him not.
12. But as many as received him, to them gave he power to become the sons of God, even to them that believe on his name:
Now we are introduced to more information. This Light, Word, Word that was with God, that is God, The Life went to His own. Whoever Own is The Word went to them. They did not receive Him, God, The Word etc.
But and a BIG But. “as many as received him” This tells us that the “his own” is a literary form of some kind. So how do we express this form by way of definition?
While the two verses clearly indicate that some of the all that make up “his own” did believe.
This may qualify in some sense as a “Heterosis nouns”. The two “pronominal adjectives” “his own” and “his own” again function as nouns or have the noun inherent in them. Vs. 11. In verse 12 the words “as many as” is also a “pronominal adjective” What is a pronominal adjective? It is a pronoun functioning in the capacity of an adjective. No big deal ok.
As we have it these pronouns qualify as a Heterosis of Nouns” . This my friends is what we call taking the language in a normal literal sense, not a wooden literal way. It lets the text speak for itself. It is the true form, genre, figure of speech. The definition of the “heterosis of Nouns” is “a plural for an indefinite number or one for many. In our case the former is the correct idea. We have “as many as” the plural for the plural “his own” of verse 11 which is an un-determined number or indefinite. If verse 12 had used a singular form then it would be “one for the many”.
OK here is a word for word translation “To the things he came and the people him”
Stay with me on this - I will go slow and try to be as clear as possible.
Verse 11: Kai is the first word = means “and”
Ta is the second word and it goes with “idia” Notice the a ending on the Ta and Idia. That puts them together OK. It is properly translated “his own” in a strict literal word for word it is “the things” Notice it is plural. This is important. “idia” or “things” is [ adjective, pronominal, or pronominal adjective, in the accusative case, and it is neuter and plural.] Also the two words “the people” agree with each other too. “The People” as you can see is Plural.
Now these people that are described as God’s own did not receive Him. What does it mean. They rejected Jesus. These people that are His own rejected God, The Word, The light, The Life, The Creator.
Now the next verse. We have established that these people who ever they are is a corporate group, Plural. It is all of them.
Look now at verse 12. But as many as received him, to them gave he power to become the sons of God, even to them that believe on his name: Without going into the minute details just take my word for it the word many is plural too in the Greek. Now to be in context the many of verse 12 would have to come form the all of verse 11. If that is the case and it is then the all of verse 11 is not absolute in meaning because it is conditioned by the definition of verse 12. There are many of the all that received the light that was to all of them. Some accepted it and others did not. We are just stating what the text says. Have you noticed I have not left the realm of these verses and quoted from other verses? I hope so.
We are letting the text speak for itself.
What do we have? We have God who is Light, Who came in to the world and who is the light of all men and who came to a people called His own and many of His own received Him of the all. At this point we do not have a clue as to the extent of the many that came to Him. All we know is that of the all many did receive him. We also know that the all in the text “all received The Light”. We know that the Light is God and that not all received the Light that they received. The rejected it. But some did not and received it.
13. Which were born, not of blood, nor of the will of the flesh, nor of the will of man, but of God.
Here we are introduced to new information. The “as many as” that received The Life are defined as “born”. We are told they are “born” (1) not of blood, (2) not of the will of flesh, or man, but (3) of God or will of God.
This being “born” is contrasted with the “blood / flesh / man” thing which is described as a birth brought on by the will of man of which it is not. So the contrast is the “as many as” received the Light are described as being born by the will of God. This being born is contrasted to the born of blood, / will of flesh / man. We have two sources of birth, one of God and the other of Man. The “as many as” are both born of the will of man and the will of God because they “received the Life, Light, Word, God.
Going on what we have. Man wills the birth of flesh. The flesh that is born because of the will of flesh / man appears in these verses not to have a choice in the matter. The ones being born as a result of the will of the flesh / man are not in a position to be considered as the “as many as” are with respect to this other birth that is of the will of God. The birth that is of God is on the basis of the “as many as” received the Life, Light, Word, God. So we have a clear distinction and clear definition of each birth. One the person has no choice - the will of man birth - but the birth that is of God “will of God” is on the basis of “as many as” received the Light, Life, Word, God.
We have a very clear understanding that the birth of flesh by the will of flesh has not say in the matter. However, we are clearly told that the birth that is of God or the will of God is on the basis of "as many as received the Light". A very clear difference. One no choice, the other a clear choice.
What we have in this exposition of these verses is a pure clear exposition of the text in context without any inclusion of outside commentary. I have kept it in context and according to the grammar and form. No one can accuse me of violating proper grammatical rules in any way.
It is what it is.