Originally posted by Pastor Larry:
I don't agree at all. The references to his coming are not only after the trib. That is where your presuppositions comes in. You think that he comes after the trib so all the references to his coming are after the trib. Do you see the circular reasoning you have employed?
Perhaps you misunderstood my point. I am simply discussing the passages themselves, not the conclusion I draw from them. Let me put it another way: There are verses talk about his coming after the trib. There are verses that talk about his coming without a time reference in relation to the trib. But there are no verses that talk about his coming *that have a time reference*, that place his coming before the trib. I am *not* saying that the passages that do not have a time reference are therefore after the trib, but I am saying that to place them before the trib is to read into them.
For example, compare the two most common "rapture" passages, 1 Thess 4:16-17 and 1 Cor 15:51-52, with Matt 24:29-31. Neither 1 Thess 4:16-17 nor 1 Cor 15:51-52 have a time reference - they only describe an event, not the timing of it in relation to the trib. Matt 24:29-31 *does* have a time element, "immediately after the tribulation". Now, I realize that there is no "proof" that all three passages are talking about the same event, but notice:
- in all three, the Lord comes
- in all three, there is the presence of angles
- in all three, a trumpet sounds
- in all three, saints are gathered
In fact, if you lay out a table and compare every detail of each passage, you see that 1 Thess 4:16-17 actually has more in common with Matt 24:29-31 than it does with 1 Cor 15:51-52. Yet we all tie 1 Thess 4:16-17 and 1 Cor 15:51-52 together easily. Why should we not tie in Matt 24:29-31 as well? I can think of no other cross-reference examples in any other area of scripture where passages that match so closely are not tied together. I admit it may be possible that Matt 24:29-31 should not be tied into the other two passages, but I have a hard time with the reason, because it would be based on where one *wants* Matt 24:29-31 to fit rather than on the text of the passage itself. It seems to me that the proper approach is to assume it is tied together until it can be explicitly explained, from other scripture, why it should not be. And I find no other scripture that tells me that. (for example, I had a KJVO fellow tell me that the two accounts of the temptation of Christ were two different events, because of the differences between the passages - obviously their similarities tie them together more strongly than their differences push them apart!) In fact, I think it would be *very* strange if Paul wrote his passages without the Matt passage in mind - for if he was talking about something different, he could have easily qualified his words instead of following the Matt passage so closely without any explanation that it is not the same event.
Anyway, I've enjoyed this discussion, but I've invested WAY more time and effort than I was intending to. I've been on this ride before, too many times.

I want to get off now, feel free to have the last word.
God bless,
Brian