• Welcome to Baptist Board, a friendly forum to discuss the Baptist Faith in a friendly surrounding.

    Your voice is missing! You will need to register to get access to all the features that our community has to offer.

    We hope to see you as a part of our community soon and God Bless!

Preserved Text Only

JonC

Moderator
Moderator
Preserved Text Only

There has been some confusion in recent discussions about what I mean when I use the term “preserved text only.” I want to clarify this carefully, because I am not speaking about a translation, nor am I speaking about English alone. I am speaking about the textual stream that God preserved through history.

When I say “preserved text only,” I am referring to the continuous, providentially preserved line of transmission that runs through the Byzantine Greek tradition, the Syriac Peshitta, the Gothic, the Old Latin, the Waldensian line, the Majority Text, and the printed editions of the Textus Receptus. This stream represents continuity, not reconstruction. It is the line of manuscripts that were copied, used, preached, and received by the believing church for centuries. It never disappeared, never had to be rebuilt from fragments, and never required modern editors to guess at lost readings. That is what I mean by preserved text only.

I am not referring to Nestle-Aland, UBS, eclectic reconstruction, conjectural emendation, or Alexandrian priority. Those represent a reconstructionist philosophy, not a preservation philosophy. They assume that the text was lost and must be restored by modern critical methods. I reject that approach entirely.

A clear example of the difference is found in Romans 8:1. The phrase “who walk not after the flesh, but after the Spirit” belongs to the preserved stream. It is found in the Majority Text, the Byzantine tradition, the Syriac, the Old Latin, the Gothic, the Waldensian line, and the TR editions. It is removed only in the Alexandrian reconstructionist stream. There is good reason to preach it, defend it, and prefer it. This is exactly what I mean by preserved text only.

Preservation is not English-only. It is text-only.
There are faithful translations in Spanish, Portuguese, German, French, Italian, Dutch, Romanian, and other languages that follow the preserved stream. These are not KJV equivalents. They are preserved-text equivalents. The issue is not English. The issue is the stream of transmission.

The Textus Receptus is not a single edition. It is a family of printed Greek texts that represent the preserved stream. The differences among TR editions are minor and do not reflect reconstruction. They reflect orthographic normalization, printer corrections, and refinement within the same preserved line. The TR tradition is stable, not eclectic.

My position is simple. I reject Alexandrian reconstruction, eclectic reconstruction, conjectural emendation, and the idea of a lost text restored by modern editors. I affirm continuity of transmission, providential preservation, linguistic maturity, and doctrinal stability.

That is what I mean by preserved text only.

Two passages summarize the heart of this conviction. Galatians 3:16 says, “He saith not, And to seeds, as of many; but as of one, And to thy seed.” Matthew 5:18 says, “One jot or one tittle shall in no wise pass from the law.” These verses express the precision of Scripture and the certainty of its preservation.

The issue of language maturity and degradation is separate but equally vital.

~Tony

© A.K. Pritchard 2026 – Free to use with proper attribution.
I disagree (I think). We have more and older text without the TR, and what has been preserved is in common with the TR and MT.

The "jot and tittle" does not (in context) refer to exact words used (the NT quotes of the OT are faithful to God's words, but not man's words used to communicate God's words).

I view the TR vs MT debate as men arguing over man's words while ignoring the superiority of God's Word (men too caught up in legalism unable to grasp the things of the Spirit).

If looking for accuracy in the words used, the Alexander is probably the most accurate. The later text types ate more refined and polished (not what would have been expected at its initial writing). But it is no more God's Word.
 

Logos1560

Well-Known Member
Site Supporter
In English, I hold to Early Modern English as the language that carried the preserved text with full precision.
You can sincerely believe your opinion or assertion, but you have failed to prove it to be true.

You have not proven Early Modern English to be more precise and superior in all aspects to Modern English.

English had not reached a stable and mature form in 1611. It would be the mid-1700's before standard English grammars were produced, providing grammar rules. The 1755 Johnson's Dictionary and Robert Lowth’s Short Introduction to English Grammar (1762) helped begin to standardize English spelling and grammar. English in the 1611 edition of the KJV was revised several times in the 1600's and in the 1700's with spelling changes continuing to be made in the 1800's.
 

Logos1560

Well-Known Member
Site Supporter
I prefer the King James Bible because it is translated from the preserved text, because it was produced when English had reached a stable and mature form, and because its translation method is formal equivalence rather than paraphrase or dynamic equivalency.

That is why I hold it as the inspired and preserved Word of God in English.
If you do not hold any other post-1611 English Bible translation to be the inspired and preserved word of God in English, you would be in effect making an exclusive only claim for the KJV.

Holding that only the KJV is "the inspired and preserved word of God in English" would constitute what is accurately defined as a KJV-only view. It would be your very own words that reveal your view concerning English Bible translations.
 

Armchair Apologist

Well-Known Member
You can sincerely believe your opinion or assertion, but you have failed to prove it to be true.

You have not proven Early Modern English to be more precise and superior in all aspects to Modern English.

English had not reached a stable and mature form in 1611. It would be the mid-1700's before standard English grammars were produced, providing grammar rules. The 1755 Johnson's Dictionary and Robert Lowth’s Short Introduction to English Grammar (1762) helped begin to standardize English spelling and grammar. English in the 1611 edition of the KJV was revised several times in the 1600's and in the 1700's with spelling changes continuing to be made in the 1800's.
I do not believe that anyone could make a 100% convincing and conclusive argument either way! The KJVO crowd can become quite nutty and I know so because "been there, done that" but the rabid "Anti-KJVO" crowd has their share of nuts and kooks as well - the main ones being those who obsess over the issue and cannot give respect to a man who simply states that "In my opinion, I believe the King James is the best translation to use." Anthony Pritchard has made this statement and has articulated why he believes what he believes. I can respect this and I fully appreciate his perspective here. As far as I am concerned, he has nothing to prove to you or anyone else. Disagree if you will and state why you disagree but in the end, it is still your personal opinion against his.
 

Logos1560

Well-Known Member
Site Supporter
Most are simply vernacular. Because English is not uniform, there is a real need for a common and pure standard that does not move with those variations. The King James Bible provides that standard. It has served English speaking believers for centuries without being placed under constant reconstruction.

That is why I hold it as the inspired and preserved Word of God in English.

cannot give respect to a man who simply states that "In my opinion, I believe the King James is the best translation to use." Anthony Pritchard has made this statement and has articulated why he believes what he believes.
Anthony Pritchard has been shown proper respect. Anthony Pritchard said much more than "In my opinion, I believe the King James is the best translation to use." He did more than just state his preference. He asserted that the KJV "provides that standard" [referring to a pure standard"], and he directly asserted that he holds that the KJV is "the inspired and preserved Word of God in English."

He tries to have it both ways: displaying KJV-only reasoning and denying being KJV-only.
He is not being shown disrespect when it is soundly demonstrated that (according to his very own assertions) he holds a form of KJV-only view, even if he is unwilling to associate with any other KJV-only advocates.

It is not just my personal opinion against his. I have not objected to anyone stating the opinion that they think that the KJV is the best English translation to use. I prefer the KJV.

The point is what the Scriptures state and teach, and the Scriptures do not state and teach that the KJV is "the inspired and preserved Word of God in English". His sincere belief concerning the KJV would be a doctrine of man, not taught in Scripture.
 
Last edited:

Anthony Pritchard

Well-Known Member
Anthony Pritchard said much more than "In my opinion, I believe the King James is the best translation to use." He did more than just state his preference. He asserted that the KJV "provides that standard" [referring to a pure standard"], and he directly asserted that he holds that the KJV is "the inspired and preserved Word of God in English."
You have repeatedly attributed claims to me that I have not made. I will clarify my position so that there is no room for misunderstanding.

I have stated that the preserved text exists in multiple languages. That alone shows that I am not making an exclusive claim for English or for the KJV. I am speaking about preservation as a historical reality, not as an English‑only doctrine.

I have also stated that Early Modern English carried the preserved text with full precision. That is a linguistic and historical observation. It does not require English to be superior in all aspects, and I have never claimed that it is. Stability and maturity for the purpose of translation are not the same as universal superiority.

You have insisted that I must prove Early Modern English to be superior in every respect. That is not my claim, so it is not something I need to prove. You are refuting a position I have not taken.

Regarding the KJV, I have said that it is the inspired and preserved Word of God in English. That is not an exclusivity claim. It is simply a recognition that the preserved text, when translated into English, is found in the KJV. Other languages have their own preserved texts. That is why I reject the label you are trying to attach to me. It does not describe my position.

You have also stated that Scripture does not teach that the KJV is the preserved Word of God in English. Scripture teaches preservation. It does not name languages or centuries. The identification of where the preserved text is found is a matter of textual history, not a matter of Scripture naming a translation. You are mixing categories.

I have been clear, consistent, and respectful. I have not tried to have anything “both ways.” I have simply refused to adopt a label that does not match my position. You are free to disagree with my conclusions, but you should represent my statements accurately.
 

Logos1560

Well-Known Member
Site Supporter
You have repeatedly attributed claims to me that I have not made. I will clarify my position so that there is no room for misunderstanding.

I have stated that the preserved text exists in multiple languages. That alone shows that I am not making an exclusive claim for English or for the KJV. I am speaking about preservation as a historical reality, not as an English‑only doctrine.

Regarding the KJV, I have said that it is the inspired and preserved Word of God in English. That is not an exclusivity claim.
You fail to demonstrate that I have attributed claims to you that you have not made. My effort is to represent your own statements accurately even when you falsely accuse me.

You attribute claims to me that I have not made as you keep ignoring and dodging my clear explanation of the term KJV-only and of what constitutes a KJV-only view. Stating that the preserved text exists in multiple languages does not at all demonstrate that someone is not KJV-only. According to your assertion, Peter Ruckman would not be KJV-only. The term KJV-only does not mean that someone claims that the Scriptures can exclusively or only be in English or can only be translated into English. The term KJV-only is not used to mean an English-only doctrine. You continue to misunderstand or misrepresent the meaning of the term KJV-only. You are the one in effect mixing categories as you try to include in the term KJV-only things that it does not mean.

I have clearly explained to you more than once that the term KJV-only relates to a view concerning English Bible translations, not concerning Bible translations in other languages.

If you do not hold any other post-1611 English Bible translation to be the inspired and preserved word of God in English, you would be in effect making an exclusive only claim for the KJV. If you cannot make the same claim that you yourself stated concerning the KJV being "the inspired and preserved word of God in English", concerning other post-1611 English Bibles such as the NKJV, Modern KJV, KJ3, KJ2000, etc. then it is an exclusive only claim for only one post-1610 English Bible translation. Holders of a KJV-only view would in effect attempt to suggest, assume, or claim that the KJV is the word of God in English in some different sense than any other post-1610 English translation is the word of God in English. The accurate and defined term KJV-only does accurately represent your position if you do not make the same claim for the NKJV and other English Bibles made from the preserved text that you make for the KJV.

Glenn Conjurske noted: “It cannot be legitimate at this hour to so define ‘King James Only’ as to leave out its distinguishing characteristics” (Olde Paths, Dec., 1997, p. 277; Bible Version Controversy, p. 82). Glenn Conjurske maintained that “the distinguishing tenet of the King James Only movement” is “the inerrancy of the King James Version” (Bible Version, p. 91). Glenn Conjurske asserted: “To use terms in serious controversy in a sense other than their commonly received sense betrays either very shallow thought, or a determination to deceive” (p. 127). Glenn Conjurske acknowledged: “We all know very well what ‘King James Only’ means. It refers to those who hold the King James Version to be without error” (Bible Version Controversy, p. 129). [By errors, he was not referring to printing errors. Some of the most extreme KJV-only advocates will acknowledge that there have been errors made by printers in KJV editions]

Glenn Conjurske observed: “Most of the King James Only men have of late been shy of the word ‘perfect,’ but if they ascribe to the King James Version what practically amounts to perfection, their scruples about the word ‘perfect’ signify nothing” (p. 127).
 

Logos1560

Well-Known Member
Site Supporter
I will clarify my position so that there is no room for misunderstanding.
You do not actually clarify your position by using a seeming incorrect or misleading definition for the term KJV-only.

You have not clarified your position to the point that it demonstrates that it does not match what would constitute a form of KJV-only view.
 

Logos1560

Well-Known Member
Site Supporter
What kind of preservation do the Scriptures teach? What is the clear, important distinction between preservation concerning the words of the original-language Scriptures and the typical KJV-only use of the term preservation for the KJV?

Considering those actual places where the KJV does not have literal, word-for-word equivalents for all the preserved original language words of Scripture, would those KJV-only advocates who use the word preserved concerning the KJV be in effect changing or redefining Biblical preservation to a sense of “message,” “meaning,” “thought,” or “dynamic-equivalent” preservation instead of the same word preservation?

Do KJV-only advocates cite any verse which teaches thought, concept, or meaning preservation in different English words rather than the preservation of the specific original-language words given by inspiration to the prophets and apostles?

Do KJV-only advocates cite any verse which teaches that the same identical, exact words given to the prophets and apostles would be preserved and kept intact by the different words in later Bible translations and in some cases by no words? At times are some KJV-only advocates possibly guilty of redefining the term preservation or are they possibly using it analogically or equivocally in some of their own stated claims for the KJV? Are KJV-only advocates in effect using a different definition or a different dictionary for the term “preservation” when they try to apply it to the different words in English in the KJV? Is it soundly demonstrated from the Scriptures that the term “preserved” should be used of the words added by men in the KJV?

KJV defenders themselves are unable to agree in their own claims concerning the doctrine of preservation and concerning how they suggest that it relates to the KJV. Is there a KJV-only civil war over the doctrine of preservation similar to the one over the doctrine of inspiration?

Some KJV-only advocates argue for perfect preservation or verbal, plenary preservation while others argue for providential preservation. At least one KJV-only author Bob Kendall seems to equate perfect preservation and providential preservation as being the same thing while others may use them with different meanings. Bob Kendall defined providential preservation as “the doctrine which states that God has kept His word error-free throughout the years in many copies through His believers” (How Firm, p. 86).

Some KJV-only advocates suggest that preservation concerns the original language words of Scripture while others directly apply the term preservation to the English words in the KJV. Do the conflicting and even contradictory claims of different KJV-only authors cause confusion concerning this Bible doctrine?
 

Mike B

Active Member
Logos, I will certainly give you credit for being tenacious. Like a pit bull, you've sunk
your teeth into your mission and are going to shake it until it gives up, dies, or runs away.
If you were a prosecutor in a court of law, I have no doubt that the judge would censor you for
badgering the witnesses.

It would be great if you could go and find one of those true, KJV-onlyists you quote so much,
and have your argument with them. ora.gif

Or, you could just continue beatdeadhorse.gif

That's just my humble opinion, of course.
 
Top