I am not sure what you are referring to then.Ok... I am certain I am not mis-characterizing the dispo camp b/c I just recently left it. I was the uber-dispo. I even have a few articles published in a dispo theology journal. And academic dispos hold to stable meaning and single meaning. Your view of prophetic fulfillments is not the current amongst most modern academic dispos. Thus I made the point about classical dispo being inconsistent and it has currently moved to what Blaising and Bock call revised (or refined as I called it) dispensationalism. I know what I'm talking about. I was doing a PhD w/ a dissertation topic about dispensationalism. My teachers were profs from DTS, BBS (Clark Summit), and FBTS at Piedmont Baptist Graduate School.
For example does wine (oinos, yayin) mean wine or grape juice? It depends on the context doesn't it?
Most of these groups that you mention arose during the inter-testamental period and are not even referred to in the OT. We are speaking of an OT phrase, not NT. As I mentioned this phrase, "The Day of the Lord," can be found as far back as in Mosaic literature (Deuteronomy), and in almost every book from thereon. It was an important doctrine. I am speaking from a Biblical point of view.First, I would say that your history of Jewish interpretation is lacking historical accuracy and validity. As I said, it is easily proven that 2nd temple Judaism was very diverse. Even the NT shows us that w/ various groups like the zealots, pharisees, saducees, scribes, and others (not to mention the essenes and others).
I am looking at it from a Biblical point of view. Think Biblical theology.Second, I'm not trying to gain your respect. I feel I have proven my case again and again (don't we all ) w/ you hardly providing much in the way of historical facts. You claim I over-generalize yet you are the one who keeps saying that Jews held to unanimous interpretations which is historically incorrect.
What did the prophets say. How did the people react.
The Jews had their opportunity:Fourth, you talk about how the Jews were not ignorant of the prophets message. But how many Jews were following Jesus at the end of his ministry? Not many at all. So either they didn't understand the prophets at all (which the prophets wrote about Jesus clearly; Lk 24:44ff.) or Jesus differed from the prophets.
"He came to his own but his own received him not" (John 1:11).
--"The Day of the Lord" is taught far more clearly in the OT then the coming of the Messiah, although both are often taught together. Christ's first coming is often obscured by the teaching of "The Day of the Lord." They thought that Christ was coming then to set up His Kingdom and were disappointed when he didn't.
Christology is not well defined in the OT, but the Day of the Lord is.Lastly, you said, "I do not bow to your assertion that these people remained clueless and ignorant of their own doctrines." That is all well and good, but you have to realize that you are saying the understood eschatology better than christology. I say that b/c the Jews clearly missed Jesus.
The Day of the Lord has much to do with judgment.
In the OT Christ is concealed; in the NT Christ is revealed.Yet you are saying that got the end times right. If that is the case, then they majored on the minor and missed the point of the OT -- Jesus! Moses wrote about Jesus (John 5:39-47), the prophets wrote about Jesus, and the writings are all about Jesus (Lk 24:44-48). Jesus is not just in obscure, multiply fulfilled prophecies. He is the goal of the OT. What God initiated w/ Abraham (redemption) and modeled w/ Israel at the Exodus and renewed w/ David (redemption and redemption) he accomplished in Jesus.
Other doctrines are found and taught far more clearly then Christology in the OT.
To be a light to the Gentiles.Lastly, I am curious, to what end was Israel to serve in their election by God? Or to ask it another way, why did God choose Israel?
No problem for the long post. I gave you my answer to the purpose of Israel, and don't agree with much of what you have written in the last paragraph.Was it in spite of the nations or to benefit the nations (read Gen 12:3 which is the gospel before you answer)? If the first, then YIKES. If the second, then how does that fit into your eschatology. If the gentiles are being gathered, then the restoration of Israel is taking place. And if gentiles are coming to salvation during the rejection of Israel, then why keep the nation around? Their role to be the conduit for the nations is served better without them. (I would actually say that Jesus embodied Israel and thus fulfilled their mission and covenants as he redefined what it was to be part of Israel. He then extended that to his disciples and the church.)
Sorry for the long post.